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Syndicate Bank Probationary Officers Exam, 2010-General Awareness : Solved Paper

2010-11-08T08:48:00.000-08:00

Syndicate Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 29-8-2010)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Mr. Mukul A. Sangma has taken over as the—
(A) Chief Minister of Manipur
(B) Chief Minister of Meghalaya
(C) Governor of Meghalaya
(D) Governor of Tripura
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. As per the reports published in various newspapers Core Sector Industries recorded a 7•2 per cent growth in March 2010. The growth of which of the following industries will not be considered in these figures ?
(A) Coal
(B) Steel
(C) Cement
(D) Power
(E) Banking
Ans : (E)

3. How much amount was earmarked in the Union Budget 2010-11 for infusion in the capital of the public sector banks during the year ?
(A) Rs. 5,000 crores
(B) Rs. 7,500 crores
(C) Rs. 10,000 crores
(D) Rs. 15,000 crores
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. India recently signed a pact with which of the following SAARC countries which will enable its Prime Minister to have direct communication with the Prime Minister of that country on Hot Line ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Nepal
(C) Pakistan
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. As per the report released by the Govt. of India, various Govt. agencies procured about 15 million tonnes of wheat during the recent Rabi season. Which of the following states was the largest contributor to this stock of 15 million tonnes ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamil Nadu
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. As we know the members of the European Union have recently decided to start functioning with a new set of rules and regulations. The newly devised rules are commonly known as—
(A) Treaty of London
(B) Treaty of Lisbon
(C) Paris Treaty
(D) Treaty of Moscow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. As per the estimates given by various organizations/agencies China is expected to reach a new economic target during 2010 by becoming world’s second largest Economy. This means China will replace—
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award-2010’ ?
(A) Javed Akhtar
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Gulzar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

9. “POSCO to invest Rs. 1000 crores more in Maharashtra” was a headline in major financial newspapers recently. POSCO is associated with which of the following businesses as its core business in Maharashtra ?
(A) Fertilizers
(B) Steel
(C) Paper and News print
(D) Automobiles
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. As per the reports published in various newspapers, “Mineral Output from mining and quarrying sector was up by 11% in April 2010.” Production of which of the following cannot be included in above figures ?
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Iron Ore
(D) Natural Gas
(E) Cement
Ans : (E)

11. ‘General Motors’ plans to go public in next two months, was a news in major financial newspapers. This means General Motors is planning to do which of the following ?
1. Wind up its business in next two months.
2. Float Initial Public Offer (IPO) in near future.
3. Launch a big sales and marketing drive to attract people from all walks of life.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

12. Who amongst the following won the Barcelona Open Lawn Tennis Tournament (men’s singles) held in April 2010 ?
(A) Fernando Verdasco
(B) Robin Soderling
(C) Deniel Nestor
(D) Nenad Zimonjic
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate/ finance sector ?
(A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
(B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
(C) International Financial Reporting Standards
(D) International Financial Reporting System
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Mallika Bhandarkar, who won a ‘Gold Medal’ in an international event recently is a—
(A) Badminton Player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player
(D) Golf Player
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Who amongst the following appoints the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission, India ?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister of India
(C) The Chief Justice of India
(D) The Lok Sabha
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. Justice D. K. Jain of the Supreme Court of India recently inaugurated the first Rural Court in Shahabad Town of the state. Shahabad is in which of the following states ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Haryana
(E) Gujarat
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following states in India recently decided to establish one Health Care Centre for every 50000 people ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala
(E) Delhi
Ans : (E)

18. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) had a dispute with which of the following agencies/organizations over the regulation of ‘ULIPs’ ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) AMFI
(C) CII
(D) WTO
(E) SEBI
Ans : (E)

19. Who amongst the following is the head of the panel set up by the Planning Commission of India to recommend measures for “Efficient Management of Public Expenditure” ?
(A) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(B) Dr. D. Subbarao
(C) Mr. C. B. Bhave
(D) Dr. Subir Gokarn
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. During the SAARC Summit at Thimpu, India announced that it will provide 50 SAARC scholarships to meritorious students from those LDCs who are member of SAARC. What is the full form of LDC ?
(A) Large Developed Country
(B) Least Diplomatic Country
(C) Least Developed Country
(D) Low Diplomatic Country
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. As we all know Child labour is totally banned in India. As per the “Child Labour Prohibition & Regulation Act”. ‘Child’ means a person who has not completed—
(A) 18 years of his/her age
(B) 16 years of his/her age
(C) 14 years of his/her age
(D) 20 years of his/her age
(E) 21 years of his/her age
Ans : (C)

22. The Women’s Reservation Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which of the following dates ?
(A) 19th July, 2010
(B) 19th March, 2010
(C) 9th July, 2010
(D) 9th March, 2010
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. As we know the Jammu & Kashmir Assembly recently passed a bill which enabled it to ban Inter District Recruitments in the state. As per the provision of the bill a youth can now apply for a Govt. Job in the state only in—
(A) His/her district
(B) The districts of his/her commissionary
(C) Only one district of his/her choice in the state
(D) The district where he/she is residing at present
(E) A District in Jammu region only
Ans : (C)

24. As we know a servere earthquake had rocked Qinghai region recently. ‘Qinghai’ is in which of the following countries ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Myanmar
(D) China
(E) Vietnam
Ans : (D)

25. The second Summit of BRIC nations was organized in April 2010 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Moscow
(C) Brasilia
(D) Beijing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following states has decided to impose a cess on commercial vehicles so that a welfare fund can be created for the transport workers in distress of the state ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following organization recently celebrated Silver Jubilee Year (25th Year) of its establishment ?
(A) ASEAN
(B) G-20
(C) Commonwealth
(D) NATO
(E) SAARC
Ans : (E)

28. Amnesty International is associated closely with which of the following ?
(A) To promote inclusive growth worldwide
(B) To make earth a better abode for future generations
(C) To protect human rights
(D) To protect the world from the dangers of any nuclear war
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPOs) ?
(A) 30 days
(B) 25 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 12 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. As reported in some major newspapers some State Governments are planning to install Desalination Plants in some coastal zones in their states. What is the purpose of installing these Desalination plants ?
1. To generate power from sea water.
2. To convert sea water into normal water.
3. To keep the coastal areas pollution free and save marine population.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. The Workers under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are encouraged to take their wages through bank and post office accounts. This step of the Govt. is to obtain which of the following goal(s) ?
1. Promote Banks’ business.
2. To minimise corrupt practices.
3. To encourage more and more people to join NREGA.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 1
Ans : (B)

32. Which of the following Rates/Ratios is not covered under the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI ?
(A) Bank Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) Cash Reserve Ratio
(D) Reverse Repo Rate
(E) Exchange Rate of Foreign Currencies
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following ministries has launched Integrated Wastelands Development Programme (IWDP) ?
(A) Ministry of Rural Development
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers
(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is/are the specific goal(s) of Bharat Nirman Project launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. To provide more and more employment opportunities to rural youth.
2. To Develop infrastructure in rural areas.
3. To provide best technical education to Indian Youth.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

35. As we know Govt. of India has launched specific programmes to protect people from contaminated drinking water. Normally the ground water available in most of the rural areas, contains which of the following chemicals /minerals which makes it unsafe for drinking ?
1. Arsenic
2. Fluoride
3. Oxygen
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following is the goal of the Indira Aawas Yojana of the Govt. of India ?
1. To provide dwelling units to people living Below Poverty Line (BPL).
2. To make metro cities slum free.
3. To provide housing facilities to the Central Govt. Employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

37. Recently an Economic & Social Survey for Asian and Pacific Region was conducted by a UN agency. The survey finds that two economies of the region are developing very fast and are at the leading positions. One of them is China. Which is the another one ?
(A) Australia
(B) Bangladesh
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. As per the reports in various newspapers the Tea Board will take up rehabilitation of about 10000 hectares of tea plantation in Himachal Pradesh. Which of the following is the main area of the state where tea is grown prominently ?
(A) Kangra
(B) Shimla
(C) Bilaspur
(D) Mandi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Solo’ which got Commonwealth Writers’ Prize 2010 ?
(A) Shobha De
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Rana Dasgupta
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. As per the reports published in various newspapers Karnataka Govt. has raised some objection on the Hogenakkal Drinking Water Project. The project is being implemented by which of the following states ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (E)

41. As per newspaper reports Iran recently organized a Trilateral Meet to discuss its ‘Nuclear Policy’. Who were the two other members at the meet ?
(A) Turkey & USA
(B) Brazil & Russia
(C) UAE & Turkey
(D) USA & Britain
(E) Brazil & Turkey
Ans : (A)

42. The ‘Wall Street Reforms Bill’ was in news recently. The bill will initiate financial reforms in which of the following countries ?
(A) USA
(B) France
(C) Australia
(D) Brazil
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

43. As per the reports in various newspapers the Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks ?
(A) AXIS Bank
(B) IDBI Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) HDFC Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

44. Various countries recently signed an agreement on sharing of Nile water between them. Which of the following cannot be a member of this forum as Nile river does not pass through it ?
(A) Tanzania
(B) Kenya
(C) Egypt
(D) Iraq
(E) Sudan
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following is the full form of ‘SOFA’ a term used frequently in international politics ?
(A) Status of Forces Agreement
(B) Statement of Foreign Agreements
(C) Strategic & Formal Alliances
(D) Soviet Forum of Allied forces
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

46. Which of the following is the body/agency set up by the Govt. of India to increase the flow of foreign investment in the country ?
(A) FIPB
(B) FEMA
(C) NSDL
(D) FCCB
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

47. The World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 13th May
(B) 31st May
(C) 13th June
(D) 30th June
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Who amongst the following is adjudged the Footballer of the Year selected by Football Writers Association (FWA) ?
(A) Francesco Totti
(B) Rio Ferdinand
(C) Pele
(D) Diego Maradona
(E) Wayne Rooney
Ans : (E)

49. Which of the following is not a Civilian Award given by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Sahitya Academy Award
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Padma Shri
(D) Bharat Ratna
(E) Kirti Chakra
Ans : (A)

50. Under the Annapurna Scheme how much foodgrain is provided to an eligible person every month ?
(A) 5 kg
(B) 10 kg
(C) 15 kg
(D) 20 kg
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Upcoming Bank Exams in 2012

2010-09-15T08:35:00.000-07:00

January
● Rajasthan Stenographer Competitive Exam., 2011 (January)
● RPSC Accountant and Junior Accountant Combined Competitive Exam., 2011 (January)
● Bihar Staff Selection Commission Graduate Level First Elementary Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (January)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 15)
● Andhra Pragathi Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Bihar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Scale I, II and III Exam. (January 22)
● M.P. Samvida Shala Techer Eligibility Test, 2011 for Category-3 (January 22)
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Middle Management (Scale II) and Officer Junior Management (Scale-I) Exam. (January 22)
● SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade II and Typist Exam., 2012 (January 22)
● Syndicate Bank Agricultural Assistant in Clerical Cadre Exam., 2011-12
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 29)
● Rewa Sidhi Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (January 29)
● U.P.S.C. Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2012 (January 29)
● Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Jan 2012 (January 29)
● South Indian Bank Clerk Exam. (January 29)

February
● SSC Food Corporation of India Assistant Grade III Exam., 2012 (February 4-5)
● Rewa Sidhi Gramin Bank Office Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 5)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (Class VI) (February 12)
● Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 12)
● Combined Defence Services Exam. (I), 2012 (February 12)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 12)
● Madhya Pradesh Police Constable Recruitment Exam. (February 12)
● Karnataka Bank P.O. Exam. (February 12) (Online Closing Date : 13 January, 2012)
● Jaipur Thar Gramin Bank Officer Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 10 January, 2012)
● Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 19)
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Officer Scale I, II and III Exam. (February 19)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Post Graduate Teachers Recruitment Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 13 January, 2012)
● Madhya Pradesh High Court Assistant Grade 3 Exam. (February 19) (Closing Date : 23 January, 2012)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Scale I Officer Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2012)
● Chartered Accountants and Specialist Officers Recruitament Exam. (February 19) (Online Closing Date : 16 January, 2012)
● Army Religious Teacher Exam (February 26)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Grade 3/Lower Division Clerk/Registration Clerk Combined Selection Exam., 2011 (February 26) (Online Closing Date : 18 January, 2012)

March
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Madhya Pradesh Excellence School Entrance Test for Class IX (March 4)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier (Office-Assistant) Exam. (March 4) (Online Closing Date : 19 January, 2012)
● Common Written Exam. (CWE) for Specialist Officers (March 11) (Online Closing Date : 21 January, 2012)
● State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. for SC/ST/OBC (March 18) (Online Closing Date : 20 January, 2012)

April
● SSC Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Exam., 2012 (April 8) (Closing Date : 10 February, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector Cadre/Platoon Commander Pre. Exam., 2011 (April 8) (Closing Date : 20 January, 2012)
● Uttar Pradesh B. Ed. Joint Entrance Exam., 2012-13 (April 21) (Closing Date : 10 March, 2012)
● Recruitment of Constables (GD) and Riflemen (GD) in CAPFs 2012 (BSF/CRPF/CISF/SSB/ITBPF/Assam Rifles) (April 22)
● All India Engineering/Architecture Entrance Exam., 2012 (April 29)

May
● Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission State Services Exam., 2011 (May 6) (Online Closing Date : 9 February, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector/Platoon Commander Main Exam., 2011 (May 13-14)
● SSC Sub-Inspector in CPOs and Intelligence Officer in NCB Exam., 2012 (May 27) (Closing Date : 16 March, 2012)
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 (July 1&8) (Closing Date : 20 April, 2012)
● SSC Stenographers Grade 'C' & 'D' Exam., 2012 (July 29) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)

September
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 (September 15-16)

October
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) for Data Entry Oerator LDC etc. Exam., 2012 (October 21) (Closing Date : 10 August, 2012)

November
● SSC Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2012 (November 18) (Closing Date : 5 October, 2012)

Bank of India Recruitment 2010 – 2467 Clerk Vacancy. July 20, 2010

2010-07-21T09:32:00.000-07:00

Bank of India Recruitment 2010 – 2467 Clerk Vacancy. July 20, 2010

Bank of India needs 2467 clerks in all over India branches. Bank of India is the top nationalized bank in India. The age should be between 18 to 28 years to apply for the jobs. Other details like qualifications, number of vacancies, salary pay scale, eligibility criteria to apply the vacancies in Bank of India as follows.

Position: Clerical Cadre – Clerks

● Number of vacancies: 2467
● Salary Pay Scale: Basic Pay in Time Scale of Rs.7200 - Rs.19300 + DA, HRA, CCA, Conveyance Allowance. Gratuity, Pension, LFC, Medical Aid etc. as per the Industry Level Settlement & Other facilities as per Bank’s Rules.
● Age should be between: 18 – 28 years ((Applicant’s Date of Birth should not be prior to 01/07/1982 & after 30/06/1992)

Qualifications: Pass with 50% marks in the aggregate, either in the Higher Secondary School (HSC) Examination or Standard XII under the 10+2+3 pattern or Standard XI under the 11+4 pattern or its equivalent of recognized Educational Board, acceptable to the Bank.
OR
A degree from UGC recognized University (Graduation level)

Application Fee: For General / OBC Candidates: Rs. 250
Selection Procedure will be done by written test and interview.

Important Dates to Remember:

● Challan availability Date: 16/07/2010
● Starting date for submission of application online: 16/07/2010
● Closing date for submission application online: 05/08/2010
● Payment must be done between: 16/07/2010 –05/08/2010
● Date consideration for Age, Qualification & Eligibility: as on 30/06/2010
● Written Examination date: 26/09/2010
● Clerical Recruitment Project 2010/11

More Information: To get the complete information about the recruitment of clerical staff in Bank of India, like syllabus, written exam dates, exam centres, application form, application format, procedure of application, rules, regulation and detail advertisement go the: http://www.bankofindia.com/career.aspx

UCO Bank Recruitment 2010: 1000 Clerks Jobs

2010-07-21T09:31:00.000-07:00

UCO Bank Recruitment 2010 for 1000 Posts of Clerks Jobs in July 2010

UCO Bank recently published a detail advertisement for the recruitment of 1000 clerks in all over India branches. UCO Bank a leading listed Public Sector Bank in India. The age should be between 18years to 28years as on 1st July, 2010. The following are the main detail like qualification, age limit, pay scale and other details. Interested candidates can apply for the jobs only by online by the link given below.

● No. of Vacancies: 1000 posts
● Age Limit: 18 to 28 years as on 1st July, 2010.
● Qualification for the Jobs: Pass with 60% marks in 10+2 examination or its equivalent OR a degree in any discipline. For SC/ST/EX-Servicemen/PC Category candidates: Pass with 50% marks in 10+2 examination or its equivalent OR a degree in any discipline.
● Pay Scale: Rs 7200 – 400/3 – 8400 – 500/3 – 9900 – 600/4 – 12300 – 700/7 – 17200 – 1300/1 – 18500 – 800/1 – 19300 DA,HRA etc. will be paid as per rules in force from time to time depending upon the place of posting. Medical, LFC, Terminal Benefits etc. will be as per prevailing rules

Important Dates to Remember :

● Payment of Application Fee/Postage Charges From 21.07.2010 – To 28.08.2010
● Starting Date for Online Registration 21.07.2010
● Last Date for Online Registration 28.08.2010
● Date of Written Examination 14.11.2010

For More Information : To get the complete information about the recruitment in UCO Bank of 1000 clerks like rules and regulations, how to apply, application form, online procedure, syllabus, written exam dates, written exam centers, date of results, interview dates and other detail notification go to the main advertisement issued by itself by the UCO Bank.

Allahabad Bank P.O. Exam, 2010 : General Awareness (Held on 21-2-2010)

2010-07-20T20:27:00.001-07:00

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010
General Awareness : Solved Paper

(Held on 21-2-2010)

1. As we all know banks publish their quarterly performance to bring transparency in the system and also to give a clear picture of their performance to the public. How were results of Quarter 2 different from the results of Quarter 1 of the listed banks including giants like SBI and ICICI banks ?
1. Performance was subdued in the Quarter 2.
2. Yields on advances of almost all listed banks have come down.
3. Advances grew at a slower pace when compared to deposits.
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Only 3 is true
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. After the Subprime crisis which of the following problems has hit the global economy/world markets recently ?
(A) Dubai debt problem
(B) Change of Government in Japan and its new economic policies
(C) High rate of inflation in India
(D) Extremely volatile behaviour of the Bombay Stock Exchange and other major Stock Exchanges world wide
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. As per the news published in major newspapers in India Banks in India need about 12 lakh business correspondents for rural areas. What will be the role of these correspondents ?
1. They will help rural people in their day-to-day banking activities.
2. They will work as a link between banks and the customers.
3. They will ascertain eligibility of rural people so that relief packages can be provided to them.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. It is evident that the economic slowdown still continues to weigh on the performance of the banks in India. How is this affecting banks and/or general public ?
(A) The number of bank account holders has gone down
(B) The gross Non-Proforming Assets (NPAs) of the listed banks have increased substantially
(C) Inflation has reached at a very high level
(D) Relief packages announced by the Govt. have proved insufficient to improve the situation of agri sector
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

5. Why has Dr. Subir Gokarn’s name been in the news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the Governor of the RBI
(B) He has taken over as the Deputy Governor of the RBI
(C) He will be the new Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India
(D) He has taken over as the Chief of the Economic Advisory Council attached to Prime Minister’s Office
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. As published in various newspaper, the Experian Credit Information Company of India is going to launch its operation in India soon. At present the only credit information bureau functional in India is—
(A) AMFI
(B) ICRA
(C) CIBIL
(D) CRISIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the news published in a financial publication RBI is redesigning its ‘ECS’ to function as a Automated Clearing House (ACH) for bulk transactions. What is full form of ‘ECS’ ?
(A) Extra Closing System
(B) Electronic Cheque System
(C) Evening Cheque Sorter
(D) Evening Cheque System
(E) Electronic Clearing Service
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following challenges will be the most crucial for human existence on earth in the days to come ?
(A) Pollution
(B) Food Security
(C) Availability of natural gas
(D) Need for Financial Inclusion
(E) Cyber Crimes
Ans : (A)

9. The Reserve Bank of India has asked all the banks to install ‘Note Sorting Machines’ in the branches. How will this help banks and the general public ?
1. The machines will check for counterfeit notes and drop these from circulation.
2. This will help banks to count the notes quickly and accurately.
3. This will help in sorting out soiled notes so that they are not reissued by the banks.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. A study report entitled ‘India Generation Gap Review’ was presented at the World Economic Forum in November 2009. This was presented during which of the following summits/conferences ?
(A) G-8 Summit
(B) G-20 Summit
(C) India Economic Summit
(D) SAARC Finance Ministers’ Conference
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. As we know the Government of India has notified certain new rules to calculate Income Tax on various perks like accommodation, and conveyance etc. being given by employers to their salaried employees. The new rules will replace which of the following taxes which has been abolished now ?
(A) Capital Gains Tax
(B) Sales Tax
(C) Cash Transaction Tax
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. Dr. K. Radhakrishnan has taken over as the Chief of—
(A) Electronics Commission
(B) Indian Space Research Organisation
(C) Atomic Energy Commission of India
(D) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. As per the guidelines issued by the RBI, banks are preparing for a service which will allow customers to withdraw upto Rs. 1,000 using their debit cards from notified shops/stores all over the country. All such shops/stores will have ‘POS’ terminals for the same. What is full form of the ‘POS’ ?
(A) Payment on Sale
(B) Power of Sale
(C) Point of Sale
(D) Payment Order Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. The working group set up by the RBI has suggested the launch of an Emergency Fund Facility Scheme for banks. This scheme will help which of the following types of banks ?
(A) Public Sector Banks
(B) Small Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Private Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
Ans : (C)

15. As published in major newspapers public sector banks have asked the Government of India to provide more funds for ‘Capital Infusion’. How much is the need of PSBs collectively for the purpose ? (Rs. in crores)
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 15,000
(C) Rs. 20,000
(D) Rs. 25,000
(E) Rs. 30,000
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following has purchased about 200 tonnes of gold from International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 2009 ?
(A) Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd.
(B) Bombay Stock Exchange of India
(C) Gold Council of India
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. One of the major emphasis of Basel II is that banks should have—
(A) adequate Capital Adequacy Ratio
(B) only few branches in urban centres
(C) more and more branches in rural areas
(D) core banking mode of operation
(E) all the above to comply with Base II norms
Ans : (A)

18. As per the reports published by various agencies/organizations, it is estimated that around 3 billion extra people will join our existing population of 6 billion by the year-2050. To provide food for all of them, a second round of which of the following initiatives is required to be started much in advance ?
(A) Green Revolution
(B) Planned Urbanisation
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Climate Migration
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

19. Who amongst the following is the President of the European Union at present ?
(A) Catherine Ashton
(B) Mr. Jose Manuel Barroso
(C) Mr. Fredrik Reinfeldt
(D) Mr. Sergi Lavrov
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. As per the reports published in various newspapers and journals almost all big nations are trying their best to resolve various disputes between the nations wherein either they are a party or because of that their peace and stability may be affected. Stability in which of the following two nations is more vital to India than that of any other nations ?
(A) Bangladesh and China
(B) China and USA
(C) Iraq and Russia
(D) South and North Korea
(E) Pakistan and Afghanistan
Ans : (E)

21. India’s bilateral per annum trade with European Union at present is about—
(A) 50 billion US $
(B) 75 billion US $
(C) 100 billion US $
(D) 150 billion US $
(E) 200 billion US $
Ans : (C)

22. Some world bodies/organisations/agencies are of the view that agriculture should adopt a ‘Cross Disciplinary Approach’, and take help of all types of sciences and studies. This approach will help in which of the following crucial problems being faced by humanity ?
(A) Use of Genetically Modified Crop
(B) Melting of glaciers
(C) Food crisis
(D) Climate change
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. An agreement between two nations or a group of nations which establishes unimpeded exchange and flow of goods and services between/among trade partners regardless of national boundaries is called—
(A) Import Free Agreement
(B) Free Trade Agreement
(C) Export Free Agreement
(D) Special Economic Zone Agreement
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following correctly describe what ‘One Carbon Credit’ is ?
1. Credit permit to release one ton of carbon dioxide.
2. Providing loans to establish one new production unit which can produce carbon dioxide for industrial use.
3. Finding out one new business which can use and recycle green house gases.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. As per various reports issued by the UNO and other world bodies, agricultural and allied activities consume what percentage of global water resources every year ? About—
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 30 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 70 per cent
(E) 60 per cent
Ans : (B)

26. The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) is a wing/agency of the—
(A) World Bank
(B) United Nations Organisation
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Ministry of Agriculture Govt. of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. As a policy, India does not encourage free movement of unskilled labours from—
(A) Gulf Countries
(B) USA and South American Nations
(C) European Union Nations
(D) All these nations
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. The Government of India has decided to disinvest its share in major public sector undertakings. How much of its share will be offloaded in this method ?
(A) 2 per cent
(B) 4 per cent
(C) 8 per cent
(D) 10 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. The United Nations Development Fund for Women (UNIFEM) is working in an Indian city to make it safe for women. Which of the following is that city ?
(A) Pune
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Lucknow
Ans : (C)

30. At present the trade between India and China is in a state of ‘Payment imbalance’. What does this mean in real terms ?
1. China does not import many items from India whereas India imports more from China.
2. China does not pay India in time and a lot of delay is reported by the exporters.
3. India wants all payments to be made in US Dollars whereas China pays in its own currency.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. India has signed an agreement on climate change with which of the following countries recently ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Australia
(E) China
Ans : (E)

32. Some Scientists are of the opinion that extra agricultural production should be achieved without going for the cultivation of extra land and also without causing damage to essential eco-system. This concept, in other words, is known as—
(A) Sustainable growth
(B) Renewability of inputs
(C) Global Melt down
(D) Climate Migration
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Mr. Z. E. A. Ben Ali has taken over as the President of—
(A) Tunisia
(B) Malaysia
(C) Indonesia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is not a Government of India undertaking ?
(A) Oil India Ltd.
(B) Sutlej Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd.
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd.
(E) Rural Electrification Corporation Ltd.
Ans : (C)

35. India shares its border with China along the Himalayan range. Which of the folllowing states touches the border of China ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Bihar
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following has been the growth of India’s GDP during 2008-09 ? (Final data are issued in late 2009)
(A) 5 per cent
(B) 5•5 per cent
(C) 6 per cent
(D) 6•5 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Which of the following ministries had launched a new ‘Skill Development Initiative Scheme’ so that the employability of the young people can be increased ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Ministry of Heavy Industry
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
(E) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Ans : (E)

38. Sachin Tendulkar has recently become the first cricketer in ODI history to cross the milestone of—
(A) 10000 runs
(B) 12000 runs
(C) 15000 runs
(D) 17000 runs
(E) 20000 runs
Ans : (D)

39. The East Asia Summit took place in October 2009 in Hua Hin town. This is a town in—
(A) China
(B) Myanmar
(C) Cambodia
(D) Malaysia
(E) Thailand
Ans : (A)

40. What per cent of India’s GDP is invested in providing education ?
(A) 1 per cent
(B) 2•5 per cent
(C) 4 per cent
(D) 6 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. India has recently gained the status of becoming the third largest producer of Steel in the world. Who is the largest producer ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Dadaab Refugee Camp’ which was in the news recently is located in which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Iraq
(C) Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Kenya
Ans : (E)

43. Which of the following countries objected to the Indian Prime Minister’s recent visit to Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Myanmar
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following not associated with climate change and/or Global Warming ?
(A) Basel Norms
(B) Bali Meet 2007
(C) Copenhagen Conference
(D) Kyoto Protocol
(E) Bangkok Meet in 2009
Ans : (A)

45. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Hockey ?
(A) Baseline
(B) Smash
(C) Drop
(D) Centre Forward
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following Genetically Modified vegetables is recently being made available in India markets ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Brinjal
(D) Potato
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Each Nobel Prize winner gets an amount of 10 million Swedish—
(A) Kroner
(B) Dollar
(C) Yen
(D) Pound
(E) Euro
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following not a plant product ?
(A) Camphor
(B) Aloe vera
(C) Vanilla
(D) Kiwi
(E) All are plant products
Ans : (E)

49. Dr. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan is one of the recipients of the Nobel Prize in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Economics
(E) Literature
Ans : (B)

50. As per the reports published in newspapers the Govt. of India has asked all the states to conduct a ‘Social Audit’ of each and every work of which of the following schemes ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) Indira Aawas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

51. Which of the following is not the name of a major Lawn Tennis Tournament ?
(A) US Open
(B) Wimbledon
(C) French Open
(D) Grand Master
(E) Australian Open
Ans : (D)

52. ‘Derby’ is associated with which of the following sports events ?
(A) Horse Racing
(B) Chess
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
(E) Football
Ans : (A)

53. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking and Finance ?
(A) Bid Price
(B) Jacksonian Seizure
(C) Call Option
(D) Bluechip
(E) Dividend
Ans : (B)

54. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for the exemplary work in the field of …………
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Films
(D) Sports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

55. Who amongst the following is the Chief Justice of India at present ?
(A) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(B) Justice V. K. Sabharwal
(C) Justice G. P. Mathur
(D) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Exogenous
(B) Depreciation
(C) Deep Market
(D) Zero Sum Game
(E) Handedness
Ans : (A)

57. Who amongst the following is not a Lawn Tennis player ?
(A) Cara Black
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Leander Paes
(E) Anand Pawar
Ans : (E)

58. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul ?
(A) A Woman Alone
(B) The Open Couple
(C) The Grass is Singing
(D) The Golden Notebook
(E) Half a Life
Ans : (E)

59. Sri Balraj Puri, who was in the news recently, is a famous …….
(A) Classical Singer
(B) Cine Actor
(C) Social Worker
(D) Sportsman
(E) Journalist
Ans : (E)

60. Which of the following is caused by H5N1 virus ?
(A) Yellow fever
(B) Measles
(C) Plague
(D) Bird flu
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

61. Which of the following rivers is not in India ?
(A) Tapti
(B) Ural
(C) Mahi
(D) Mahanadi
(E) Penner
Ans : (B)

62. Mr. Mohamed Nasheed was on a five day state visit to India recently. He is the President of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Iran
(C) Indonesia
(D) Maldives
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

63. India celebrated which of the following Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi in October 2009 ?
(A) 110
(B) 120
(C) 130
(D) 140
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following states has launched e-Shakti Programme so that poverty can be reduced in the state ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

65. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India to improve the health of pregnant and lactating mothers ?
(A) Matritva Sahayog Yojana
(B) Dhan Lakshmi Yojana
(C) ASHA
(D) Health for All Scheme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

66. As per the decision taken by the Orissa Cabinet the new name of the state would be written as—
(A) Odisha
(B) Orissha
(C) Aurissa
(D) Horissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

67. India recently organized sixth ministerial level of Indo-US-TPF. What is fullform of TPF ?
(A) Trade Policy Forum
(B) Traditional Planning Force
(C) Trade and Payment Finance
(D) Technical Planning Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

68. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of state level agency on afforestation created by the Government of India ?
(A) NDMA
(B) SFDA
(C) ICMJE
(D) ICCROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

69. Which of the following states has launched ‘Atta-Dal Scheme’ under which atta and dal will be supplied at affordable prices to ration card holders ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

70. Which of the following states has the maximum number of Sugar mills ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

71. India purchased the Break Anti Missile Defence System from—
(A) USA
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

72. Mullaperiyar Dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Pamba
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Cauvery
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

73. Which of the following countries won the Champions Trophy Cricket Tournament 2009 ?
(A) England
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) New Zealand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

74. Who amongst the following has been nominated for Man Booker Prize–2009 ?
(A) J. M. Coetzee
(B) Hilary Mantel
(C) Sarah Waters
(D) Thomas Cromwell
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

75. Shantiswarup Bhatnagar Awards are given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Economics
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Cinema
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Corporation Bank P.O. Exam, (Held on 9-5-2010) Solved Paper

2010-07-19T09:15:00.000-07:00

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tion-Bank.gif" border="0" />
style="font-size:130%;color:#ff0000;">Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam.,

2010

(Held on 9-5-2010)
English Language : Solved

Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold

to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

There are various sectors in India that are to be assessed for their strengths, weaknesses,

opportunities and threats.

The total population is over 1 billion which will increase to 1•46 billion by 2035 to cross

China. The huge population will result in higher unemployment and deterioration of quality.

Literacy, in India is yet another factor to be discussed. According to 1991 census, 64•8%

of the population was illiterate. The major downtrend of education is due to child labour

which has spread all over India and this should be totally eradicated by way of

surveillance and a good educational system implemented properly by the

Government.

Pollution is one more threat to the environment and for the country’s

prospects. This has been experienced more in urban areas mainly in

metropolitan cities. The water pollution by the sewage seepage into the ground water and

improper maintenance will lead to various diseases which in turn will affect the next

generation. In most of the cities there is no proper sewage disposal. The Government has to

take effective steps to control population which, in turn, will minimize the pollution.

Poverty questions the entire strength of India’s political view and minimizes the energetic

way of approach. The shortfall of rains, enormous floods, unexpected famine, drought,

earthquake and the recent tsunami hit the country in a negative way. The proactive approach

through effective research and analytical study helps us to determine the effects in

advance. Proper allocation of funds is a prerequisite. In developed

countries like U.S., Japan precautionary methods are adopted to overcome this, but it has

to be improved a lot in our systems.

Increased population is one of the major reasons for poverty and the Government is unable

to allocate funds for basic needs to the society. India has nearly 400 million people

living below the poverty line and 90% of active population is in informal economy. The

children are forced to work due to their poverty and differential caste

system. They work in match industry for daily wages, as servants, mechanics, stone

breakers, agricultural workers, etc. To prevent child labour, existing laws which favour

the Anti Child Labour Act should be implemented by the Government vigorously.

More population results in cheap cost by virtue of the demand supply concept. Most of the

foreign countries try to utilize this factor by outsourcing their business in India with a

very low capital. According to U.S., India is a ‘Knowledge pool’ with cheap labour. The

major advantage is our communication and technical skill which is adaptable to any

environment. The cutting edge skill in IT of our professionals helps the outsourcing

companies to commensurate with the needs of the consumers in a short span.

The major competitors for India are China and Philippines and by the way of an effective

communication and expert technical ability, Indians are ahead of the race. The major

Metropolitan states are targeting the outsourcing field vigorously by giving various

amenities to the outsourcing companies like tax concession, allotting land etc., to start

their businesses in its cities without any hurdles. Thereby most of the MNCs prefer India

as their destinations and capitalize the resources to maximize their assets. Infrastructure

is another key factor for an outsourcing company to start a business in a particular city.

It includes road, rail, ports, power and water. The increased input in infrastructure in

India is very limited where China’s record is excellent.

India in earlier days gave more importance to the development of industry and less

importance to other departments. But the scenario has quite changed now-a-days by

allocating a special budget of funds for security. This is because of the frightening

increase in terrorism all around the world especially emerging after the 9/11 terror attack

in U.S. In the last ten years, budget towards the development of military forces is higher

when compared to others. It shows that the threat from our neighbouring countries is

escalating. India has to concentrate more on this security factor to wipe out the problem

in the way of cross-border terrorism.

Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a

variety of factors in order to progress rapidly. To quote China as an example is that they

demolished an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India

is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors

are to be spent for the development and welfare of the country. India’s vision for a

brighter path will come true not only by mere words or speech, but extra effort is needed

at all levels to overcome the pitfalls.

1. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are a result(s) of increased

population in India ?
1. Pollution
2. Poverty
3. Unemployment
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

2. Why, according to the author, has the Indian Government allotted more funds to

strengthen the military forces ?
(A) To improve security in order to counter increasing terrorism
(B) As the security in India over the past ten years was grossly inadequate
(C) As the U.S. too has strengthened its military forces after the 9/11 attack
(D) As the industry is developed enough and is not in need of any more funds
(E) None of these

3. What is the author’s main objective in writing this passage ?
(A) To exhort the Government to garner support from its neighbouring countries
(B) To suggest to the Government to follow China’s example blindly thereby bringing about

rapid development
(C) To highlight the plight of the poor
(D) To discuss the problems of child labour and suggest suitable remedies
(E) To bring forth the problems associated with India’s development and to suggest measures

to counter them

4. Why, according to the author, is India one of the favourite destinations for investment

by outsourcing companies ?
1. Shorter response time for clients.
2. Better technical skills.
3. Availability of cheap labour.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 1

5. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage ?
1. India leads the way in the amount invested in the development of infrastructure.
2. Political system in India is not influenced by poverty.
3. Indian population would increase by approximately 50 per cent in the next twenty five

years.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

6. Which of the following is/are the facility(ies) available to MNCs investing in India ?
1. Easy availability of land.
2. Better infrastructure than China.
3. Tax Concessions.
(A) Only 3
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these

7. Which of the following, according to the author, is a result of poverty in India ?
(A) Lack of a robust security system
(B) Child labour and the resulting dearth of educated youth
(C) Floods, famines and other calamities
(D) Rapid increase in population
(E) None of these

8. How, according to the author, can the effects of floods, famines, droughts, etc. be

minimized ?
(A) By limiting pollution thereby reducing the chances of such events taking place
(B) By educating the children about the ill effects of such calamities who in turn will

help during the time of need
(C) By following the U.S. system of providing relief to its citizens
(D) By allotting proper funds for research which can predict the outcome of such calamities

and thus design relief measures
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most

similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as

used in the passage.

9. SURVEILLANCE
(A) Spying
(B) Cameras
(C) Security
(D) Observation
(E) Alertness

10. PREREQUISITE
(A) Result
(B) Association
(C) Necessity
(D) Factor
(E) Mystery

11. PROSPECTS
(A) Assimilation
(B) Demand
(C) Future
(D) Brochure
(E) Diagnosis

12. COMMENSURATE
(A) Match
(B) Extracting
(C) Contemplating
(D) Request
(E) Employing

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most

opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as

used in the passage ?

13. LIMITED
(A) Abundant
(B) Complete
(C) Flowing
(D) Inadequate
(E) Encompassing

14. DIFFERENTIAL
(A) Solitude
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Synonymous
(D) Unique
(E) Different

15. VIGOROUSLY
(A) Simply
(B) Regularly
(C) Roughly
(D) Softly
(E) Leniently

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given

below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to

make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no

correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Banks charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the

loan.
(A) Difference in rate of interests
(B) Differently what rate of interest
(C) Different rates of interest
(D) The different rate of interest
(E) No correction required

17. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon.
(A) We should take every
(B) We have taken no
(C) Us to take any
(D) We take some
(E) No correction requireds

18. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on

investors.
(A) What impact
(B) That the impact
(C) How much impacts
(D) What are the impacts of
(E) No correction required

19. Kindly ask his advice regarding the various health insurance policies

presently available.
(A) Him to advise that
(B) Regarding his advise
(C) That he should advice
(D) About his advice
(E) No correction required

20. Unfortunately many of our towns and cities do have more good

transportation Systems.
(A) Have a good
(B) Not have good
(C) Not have much good
(D) Not having better
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3),

(4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the

questions given below—
(1) With all the bid information being available and tracked online, corruption has

considerably reduced.
(2) Today, most i.e. over ninety-five per cent households, in the city enjoy Broad Band

connection.
(3) All city contracts are now bid for online.
(4) Over twenty years ago the city government, central government and the private Sector

made a concerned effort to shift the economy to include IT
(5) As our cities expand and become more complex, such a system will make Governance more

manageable.
(6) This level of connectedness has changed not only the city’s economy but also how it is

governed and how business is conducted.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The letter of that part is the answer. If there

is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

26. Some genuine issues exist (A) / with the newly adopted (B) / system and needs to (C) /

be examined seriously. (D) No error (E)

27. Whether or not to confront (A) / them about their role (B) / in the matter is a

decision (C) / which is yet to take. (D) No error (E)

28. The government is still in the (A) / process of finalized new policy (B) / guidelines

for the allocation of land (C) / to private sector organizations. (D) No error (E)

29. According to government estimates (A) / at least four millions tonnes of sugar (B) /

will have to be imported (C) / this year because of a poor monsoon. (D) No error (E)

30. In our experience people usually (A) /value things that they have to (B) / pay off more

than those that (C) / they receive free of cost. (D) No error (E)

31. At present China is the (A) / world’s leader manufacture (B) / of environment friendly

products (C) / such as electric cars and bicycles. (D) No error (E)

32. Over eighty per cent from us (A) / feel that if we had taken (B) / some corrective

measures earlier (C) / the crisis could have been averted. (D) No error (E)

33. The manager of that city branch (A) /cannot handle it with the help of (B) /only two

personnel as (C) / business has increased substantially. (D) No error (E)

34. With the literacy rates in this (A) /region as low as ten per cent (B) /we need to

encourage (C) / local people to build schools. (D) No error (E)

35. While providing such facilities (A) /online makes it covenient (B) / and easily

accessible for customers (C) / we face several challenges. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words

printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and

(D). One of these four words printed in bold may be Either wrongly spelt

or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly

spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the

words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the

context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. The bank’s fluctuating (A) performance over the prior

(B) year has been a major (C) cause (D) for concern. All

correct (E)

37. An economy relies (A) on its access (B) to

dependable (C) and affordable (D) sources of energy. All

correct (E)

38. Researches have used data prevalent (A) to manufacturing companies

to illustrate (B) the harmful (C)

impacts (D) of technology on the environment. All correct (E)

39. Such a situation (A) is neither feasible (B) nor

desirable (C) in a democratic country like ours. (D) All

correct (E)

40. The gradual (A) withdrawal (B) of such

safety (C) mechanisims (D) will affect small and medium

industries the most. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of

which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five

words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate

word in each case.

The world’s climate has always changed and species have evolved accordingly to survive it.

The surprising fact about the …(41)… between evolution and global warning

…(42)… that it is not liner. …(43)… temperatures alone

are not …(44)… of evolution. Evolution is also the …(45)…

of seasonal changes. As the environment …(46)… those species which don’t

adapt …(47)… to exist.

But the sheer …(48)… of manmade climate change today is

…(49)…. ‘Bad things are happening’ and by one …(50)…

global warning could threaten upto one-third of the world’s species if left unchecked. In

fact a lot of the species which will be able to survive are the ones we consider pests like

insects and weeds.

41. (A) difference
(B) similarity
(C) argument
(D) relationship
(E) alliance

42. (A) being
(B) seems
(C) mainly
(D) besides
(E) is

43. (A) however
(B) mounted
(C) rising
(D) elevating
(E) inclining

44. (A) means
(B) triggers
(C) responses
(D) threats
(E) stimulus

45. (A) results
(B) precursor
(C) resistance
(D) cause
(E) provocation

46. (A) conserves
(B) stifles
(C) predicts
(D) changes
(E) emerges

47. (A) continue
(B) halt
(C) cease
(D) terminate
(E) discontinue

48. (A) luck
(B) value
(C) coolapse
(D) pace
(E) attention

49. (A) threatened
(B) pursued
(C) unprecedented
(D) record
(E) debated

50. (A) forecast
(B) chance
(C) pattern
(D) occasion
(E) imagination

Answers :
1. (E) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (E) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (E) 38. (A) 39. (E) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (B)

SBI Specialist Management-Technical Executives vacancy July-2010

2010-07-18T21:05:00.000-07:00

SBI Specialist Management-Technical Executives vacancy July-2010

Advertisement No. CRPD/SME & STE/2010-11/02

On-Line Applications are invited from eligible Indian Citizens for 560 posts of Specialist Management Executives and Specialist Technical Executives in State Bank of India (SBI).

Date of Written Examination : 31/10/2010
Receipt of Online Applications : 31/08/2010

Specialist Management Executives : 500 posts (SC-75, ST-37, OBC-135, UR-253) (PH-15), Qualification : Post Graduate Degree/ Diploma in Business Administration or CA or ICWA with Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 10th AND Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 12th OR Minimum 60% aggregate marks in diploma course minimum two years duration after 10th Standard (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) AND Minimum 60% aggregate Marks (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) in Graduation AND CA or ICWA or Minimum 60% aggregate marks (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) in Post Graduate Degree / Diploma in Business Administration., 3 years experience, Age : 25-35 years as on 31/08/2010. Relaxation as per rules., Pay Scale : starting basic pay of Rs. 25700/- in the scale of Rs. 25700-800/5-29700-900/2-31500

Special Technical Executive : 60 posts (SC-9, ST-4, OBC-17, UR-30) (PH-1), Qualification : B.E./ B.Tech/ B.Sc.(Engineering) in Mechanical OR Chemical /Pharma / Bio Tech OR Electrical/ Electronics / IT OR Textile OR Food Technology OR Metallurgy with Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 10th AND Minimum 60% (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) aggregate marks in class 12th OR Minimu 60% aggregate marks in diploma course (minimum two year duration) after 10th Standard (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) AND Minimum 60% aggregate marks (55% for SC/ ST/PWD) in B. E. / B. Tech / B.Sc (Engineering) in the following streams : Mechanical or Chemical / Pharma / Biotech or Electrical / Electronics / I T or Textile or Food Technology or Metallurgy only., 3 years experiecne, Age : 25-35 years as on 31/08/2010. Relaxation as per rules., Pay Scale : starting basic pay of Rs. 25700/- in the scale of Rs. 25700- 800/5-29700-900/2-31500

Application Fee : Rs.500/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD). Candidates are required to go to any CBS Branch of State Bank of India and pay the amount of prescribes fees and get receipt from the branch.

How to Apply: Apply Online at SBI web site from 26/07/2010 to 31/08/2010.

Kindly visit Recruitment section at http://sbi.co.in/ for detailed information plus payment fee voucher copy. and a link to apply online.

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam., 23-5-2010 Solved Paper

2010-07-18T21:03:00.000-07:00

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

(Held on 23-5-2010 )

English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived a robber in a village. One day, he stole a temple bell and ran towards the forest. A Tiger heard the jingle of the bell and became curious to locate the sound. As soon as he saw the robber, he jumped upon him and killed him at once. The bell fell on the ground. After a few days, a group of monkeys passed through that way. They spotted the bell and carried it to their home in the forest.

They found the jingle of the bell very interesting. Subsequently every one of them became very fond of the bell and started playing with it. After every tiring day, the monkeys would sit on the top of a hill in the forest in the night and enjoy the melodious sound of the bell. The people of the village were afraid of the noise. Soon afterwards, the people from the village found the body of the robber and proclaimed, “Certainly there is an evil spirit around here that kills human beings and then rings the bell to celebrate”.

When the people heard this, they thought that a demon was haunting their village. Without giving any second thought, people started leaving the village in terror and settling in a new place. However, there was an intelligent and bold woman in that village. She thought to herself, “I don’t believe that a demon is haunting this village. I will find out who is ringing the bell”. Late in the night, she went into the forest bravely and found that a group of monkeys was playing about and ringing the bell.

Now as the woman knew the secret of the bell, she went to the King and said, “Your Majesty ! I’m sure there is no evil spirit in the village and the cause of all the trouble lies somewhere else. If you grant me some money, I will get rid of it and bring happiness to the village.” The King, who was also terrified of the hoax that prevailed in the village, granted the request of the woman.

The woman bought as much peas, groundnuts and fruits with that money as she could. She went into the forest, made a circle under a tree on the ground, placed all the eatables and hid herself at some distance. She kept a watch on the monkeys from a distance.

As and when the monkeys saw the eatables, they dropped the bell just as the old woman had expected of them. They ran to pick the eatables. The woman picked up the bell quickly and rushed towards the village. She gave the bell in the court of the King. The King was happy with the brave woman and everyone in the village admired her bravery. The pleased King rewarded the woman for her bravery. Since that day there was no sound of the bell in the village. People returned to their village and lived happily ever after.

1. What did the group of monkeys do with the bell ?
(A) They used it to scare away the villagers
(B) They enjoyed its pleasant sound every night
(C) They returned it to the temple
(D) They gave it to the king as they feared him
(E) None of these

2. Why did the villagers move out of the village in search of a new place ?
(A) They were scared of frequent attacks of the maneating tiger
(B) They were terrified of the king as he was an evil person
(C) The village was cursed by Gods as the villagers could not find the lost bell of the temple
(D) They were fed up of frequent robberies in the village
(E) None of these

3. Why did the woman from the village go to the forest late in the night ?
(A) To find out who was ringing the bell every night in the forest
(B) To request the demon to leave the village and live somewhere else
(C) In order to hide from the demon present in the village
(D) To hunt down the evil monkeys who had been killing human beings
(E) None of these

4. How did the robber who stole the bell from the temple die ?
(A) As the bell belonged to a temple, he was cursed by Gods and died
(B) The group of monkeys killed him in order to take the bell from him
(C) A tiger in the forest spotted the rober due to the ringing bell and killed him
(D) The king had ordered the woman to find the robber and kill him
(E) None of these

5. What did the villagers presume after finding the dead robber ?
(A) That monkeys in the forest had been killing human beings
(B) That an evil spirit had been killing human beings and haunting the village
(C) That there was a man-eating tiger in the forest
(D) That the man had been killed of a curse as he had stolen a temple’s bell
(E) None of these

6. Why is the woman referred to as intelligent and bold in the given story ?
(A) She was the only one in the entire village who had dared to confront the evil king
(B) She killed the troublesome group of monkeys all by herself
(C) She fooled the king and drew out a substantial amount of money from him
(D) She was not frightened of the hoax and was brave enough to find out the truth behind it
(E) None of these

7. Why did the woman ask for some money from the king ?
(A) She needed money for moving away from the haunted village
(B) In order to buy eatables to attract the monkeys
(C) To pay the demon in exchange for leaving the village
(D) In order to buy a new bell for the temple and end God’s curse
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is true in context of the passage ?
(A) The king of the village bravely fought against the robber and killed him
(B) The monkeys informed the tiger that a robber had entered the forest
(C) Finally, all the villagers returned to their homes
(D) There was an evil spirit in the village which killed human beings
(E) None is true

9. Why did the monkeys drop the bell before the woman picked it up and took it to the village ?
(A) They wanted to collect all the eatables kept under the tree
(B) The woman threatened them to drop the bell or face the consequences
(C) They were scared as the king had ordered them to return the bell to the temple
(D) The tiger threatened to kill them if they refused to return his bell
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following best describes the woman as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Evil
(B) Cruel
(C) Superstitious
(D) Generous
(E) Courageous

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word/group of words which is/are most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SPOTTED
(A) Patched
(B) Supplied
(C) Spoiled
(D) Noticed
(E) Provided

12. GRANT
(A) Assign
(B) Reward
(C) Give
(D) Generate
(E) Request

13. WATCH
(A) Observation
(B) Impression
(C) Record
(D) Period
(E) Timepiece

Directions–(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word/group of words which is/ are most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. DROPPED
(A) Selected
(B) Raised
(C) Increased
(D) Maintained
(E) Picked up

15. ADMIRED
(A) Neglected
(B) Criticised
(C) Disagreed
(D) Punished
(E) Feared

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. I looked everywhere as my keys, but I couldn’t figure out where I had put them.
(A) For my key
(B) As mine keys
(C) For my keys
(D) Finding my key
(E) No correction required

17. The new restaurant is doing good business becaue it serves food of good quality at lower rates than other restaurants in the area.
(A) Of serving food in
(B) It serves food for
(C) They serve food of
(D) It serves food in
(E) No correction required

18. The president was extremely popular on the world stage but is dislike in his own country.
(A) But was disliked
(B) Rather is disliked
(C) Because of dislike
(D) But is liked
(E) No correction required

19. In an attempt to change its oldfashioned image, the newspaper must created a section aimed at younger leaders.
(A) Will create few
(B) Is creating few
(C) Should creates a
(D) Has created a
(E) No correction required

20. As her neighbour have loud parties every night, she does not complain. She prefers to put up with it—
(A) Because her neighbour
(B) Even though her neighbours
(C) Despite of neighbours
(D) Instead of her neighbour
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either mis-spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all t h e words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Drivers (A) who exceed (B) the speed limit (C) are duly find (D) by the traffic police personnel. All correct (E)

22. This project (A) is in its final faze (B) of completion and is expected (C) to be ready (D) by the end of this year. All correct (E)

23. The bored (A) of governors meets (B) once every month to discuss (C) the organisation’s policy. (D) All correct (E)

24. There was a slight (A) reduction (B) in his wait (C) after almost a week (D) of strict dieting. All correct (E)

25. He has not been able to attend (A) the office (B) for last four (C) days because he is suffering (D) from fever. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) He instructed his stable master to give him the fastest of all the horses he had.
(2) Akbar was embarrassed and in turn gifted the Sage a horse cart and made the stable master its driver in order to punish him.
(3) After a few days Akbar saw the Sage walking again and asked him where the horse was.
(4) Once Akbar saw a sage walking and decided to gift him a horse.
(5) The Sage answered “My Lord, the horse gifted to me was so fast that it crossed the distance
from earth to heaven in one night.”
(6) However, it so happened that the stable master gave him a frail and sick horse which died the
same night it was gifted to the Sage.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

29. Which of the folloiwng should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 6

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (1), (2), (3) (4), (5) and (6). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answersheet.

31. (1) WAS
(2) HER
(3) IMPRESSED
(4) I
(5) HONESTY
(6) BY
(A) 412635
(B) 615324
(C) 316425
(D) 413625
(E) 642351

32. (1) ABANDON
(2) WE
(3) SHIP
(4) TO
(5) THE
(6) HAD
(A) 264153
(B) 213645
(C) 261354
(D) 546132
(E) 513642

33. (1) TO
(2) WAS
(3) LEAVE
(4) IMMEDIATELY
(5) TOLD
(6) SHE
(A) 621543
(B) 351642
(C) 164253
(D) 351624
(E) 625134

34. (1) WEATHER
(2) TODAY
(3) IS
(4) HOT
(5) THE
(6) VERY
(A) 416352
(B) 513642
(C) 512436
(D) 541632
(E) 412356

35. (1) IGNORED
(2) WARNING
(3) MANY
(4) SIGNS
(5) PEOPLE
(6) THE
(A) 351462
(B) 326154
(C) 351624
(D) 254361
(E) 261345

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

36. Sadly, tomorrow’s cricket match will have to be …………… due to bad weather.
(A) played
(B) unorganised
(C) cancelled
(D) won
(E) rained

37. The dumping of waste products is carefully done by the company in order to ………… any harm to the environment.
(A) avoid
(B) cause
(C) expect
(D) intend
(E) do

38. No matter where that prisoner tries to …………, the police will find him sooner or later.
(A) imprison
(B) arrest
(C) find
(D) stops
(E) hide

39. I do not know where Neha lives because we have been ………… of touch for quite some time.
(A) not
(B) out
(C) hardly
(D) never
(E) ever

40. It is a shame that many people in the world have to live …… basic necessities such as food and shelter.
(A) along
(B) including
(C) despite
(D) without
(E) short

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there lived a Brahmin. He was …(41)… for his miserliness. Every day, he would go out begging and save some flour people gave him as alms. He …(42)… the flour in an earthen pot. When it was full he hung the pot to a peg above his bed so that he could keep an …(43)… on it.

One day he returned home very tired and immediately fell …(44)… and began dreaming : “This pot is full of flour and if there is a famine it would …(45)… me a very high price. With that money. I will buy a big herd of goats. I will sell them for a huge …(46)… and buy cows with that money. Then I will buy buffaloes and later horses. And, when the stables are full of horses I will sell them and buy lots of gold.”

“With this gold, I will build a huge house with four floors. Seeing my riches one Brahmin will offer the hand of his beautiful daughter to me. I will play with my children. I will go and hide in the stable and call out to them to look for me. But when they drift dangerously …(47)… to the horses, I will pick up a stick and throw it towards the horses to distract them and save my children. I will become a hero in my wife’s eyes. While …(48)… he picked a stick lying close to him and sprung it towards the pot. The stick …(49)… the pot hanging from the peg and …(50)… all its contents over his body. He now looked like a white ghost.

41. (A) respected
(B) begging
(C) proud
(D) upset
(E) known

42. (A) ate
(B) stored
(C) hung
(D) threw
(E) kneaded

43. (A) watch
(B) attention
(C) observation
(D) eye
(E) attachment

44. (A) down
(B) badly
(C) asleep
(D) resting
(E) lying

45. (A) fetch
(B) profit
(C) sell
(D) gain
(E) exchange

46. (A) money
(B) loss
(C) wealth
(D) profit
(E) cash

47. (A) near
(B) close
(C) towards
(D) attached
(E) front

48. (A) playing
(B) riding
(C) beating
(D) saving
(E) dreaming

49. (A) wasted
(B) burst
(C) shattered
(D) spread
(E) injured

50. (A) spilled
(B) fell
(C) stored
(D) poured
(E) release

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D)12. (C)13. (A) 14. (E) 15. (B) 16. (C)17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (E) 26. (D)27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (E)
31. (D)32. (A) 33. (E) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (C)37. (A) 38. (E) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (E) 42. (B)43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D)47. (B) 48. (E) 49. (C) 50. (A)

Corporation Bank Recruitment - 1250 Clerk Posts

2010-07-05T19:56:00.000-07:00

Corporation Bank Recruitment - 1250 Clerk Posts

Corporation bank is one of the leading & oldest public sector banks in India. Present across India, the bank has over 1100 networked branches & around 1100 ATMs.As part of recruitment 2010-11, Corporation bank is recruiting 1250 clerks.

Position : Clerk
Vacancies : 1250 (State-wise)
Payscale : Rs.9500

Dates : Online Registration : 01.07.2010 to 31.07.2010
Written Examination : 12.09.2010

Eligibility : Candidates interested to apply for clerk post in Corporation bank ,

* Age Limit : 18 - 28 years as on 1.06.2010
* Degree in any discipline with 40% or more from recog. university,
* Should be able to read/write/speak official language of the state applied.
* Knowledge of computers is also essential.

Selection : The recruitment for Corporation bank clerk recruitment has Written test & Interview. The Written exam has 4 objective papers & those with high marks will be called for Interview.Shortlisted candidates from the objective test shall have to appear for Computer literacy test.

Application : Candidates have to pay Rs.50(SC/ST) & Rs.200(all others) at any of the corporation bank branches before 31.07.2010, using the payment challan given at the website. After payment, application has to be submitted through the website www.corpbank.in mentioning your payment and personal details.Note down the generated Registration number & Password for future use.

>> Candidates can download the application, payment challan & apply online for Corporation bank clerk recruitment at the bank website here

Vijaya Bank Clerk Exam, 2010 (Held on 7-2-2010) : Reasoning Ability Solved Paper

2010-06-03T20:47:00.000-07:00

href="http://4.bp.blogspot.com/_M9ckjS8Bq4Y/TAh0nWSwhMI/AAAAAAAADJs/O5poLbmFJuc/s1600/Vijaya+Bank+Logo.gif">Bank+Logo.gif" border="0" />style="color:#000099;">Vijaya Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

align="center">(Held on 7-2-2010)
Reasoning Ability : Solved Paper

1. How many such pairs of digits are there in number ‘36725918’ each of which has as many digits between them in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the numbers ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

2. What should come next in the following number series ?
6 8 8 1 2 6 8 6 1 2 3 6 8 8 1 2 3 4 6 8 6 1 2 3 4 5 6 8 ?
(A) 6
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’, SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ written in that code ?
(A) 3@©8
(B) 3@%9
(C) 3@%8
(D) 3%@8
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. If ‘@’ means ‘’, ‘©’ means ‘÷’, ‘%’ means ‘+’ and ‘$’ means ‘–’ then ………
6 % 12 © 3 @ 8 $ 3 = ?
(A) 37
(B) 35
(C) 39
(D) 33
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. In a certain code ‘MOUSE’ is written as ‘PRUQC’. How is ‘SHIFT’ written in that code ?
(A) VKIRD
(B) VKIDR
(C) VJIDR
(D) VIKRD
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

7. Among A, B, C, D and E each scoring different marks in a test, C scored more than D but not as much as E. E scored more than A who scored less than B. Who score third highest marks ?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. ‘K’ walked 5 metre towards North, took a left turn and walked for 10 metre. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 metre, and again took right turn and walked 10 metre. How far he is from the starting point ?
(A) 20 metre
(B) 15 metre
(C) 25 metre
(D) 30 metre
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Pointing to a girl, Mr. Suraj said “she is the only daughter of my father’s son-in-law”. How is the girl related to Mr. Suraj ?
(A) Niece
(B) Cousin
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
(E) Cannot be determined
Ans : (A)

10. Sneha correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is before 16th June but after 11th June whereas her younger brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 13th June but before 18th June and her elder brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is on an even date. On what date in June is definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) Sixteenth
(B) Twelfth
(C) Fourteenth or Sixteenth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. How many such digits are there in the number ‘37152869’ each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

12. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CONFIRM’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

13. ‘KN’ is related to ‘QT’ in the same way as ‘DG’ related to ……….
(A) JN
(B) IM
(C) JM
(D) IN
(E) IL
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 14–16) Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below :
518 849 365 783 291

14. If the positions of first and third digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of third highest number ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

15. If the first digit in all the numbers starting with an even digit is replaced by a number preceding it, then which of the following will be the sum of the first digit of the resulting highest and the lowest numbers ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 6
(E) 13
Ans : (E)

16. If the positions of the first and the second digits in each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 849
(B) 365
(C) 783
(D) 291
(E) 518
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below.
Q 9 K # P @ 3 E N S A C ★ G © U M 7 F I V % 4 Z 8 Y

17. If all the numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the right end ?
(A) E
(B) P
(C) I
(D) C
(E) @
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifth to the left of ‘V’ ?
(A) 3
(B) A
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) V
(B) 4
(C) %
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) IM%
(B) CNG
(C) 3#N
(D) UGC
(E) GAU
Ans : (D)

21. How many such symbols are there in above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an alphabet and immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

22. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Two
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 23–28) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

23. Statements :
All coins are glasses.
Some glasses are cups.
Some cups are boxes.
All boxes are pins.
Conclusions :
I. Some coins are cups.
II. Some pins are glasses.
III. Some cups are pins.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Statements :
Some pens are pencils.
All pencils are caps.
All caps are buses.
Some buses are trains.
Conclusions :
I. Some trains are caps.
II. Some pens are buses.
III. Some pencils are trains.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) None follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (B)

25. Statements :
All shirts are skirts.
All skirts are banks.
All banks are roads.
All roads are brushes.
Conclusions :
I. All banks are skirts.
II. All roads are banks.
III. Some brushes are shirts.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None follows
Ans : (B)

26. Statements :
Some fishes are plates.
Some plates are spoons.
Some spoons are plants.
All plants are crows.
Conclusions :
I. Some plates are crows.
II. Some crows are spoons.
III. Some plants are spoons.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) None follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) Either I or III follows
Ans : (D)

27. Statements :
Some eggs are hens.
Some hens are ducks.
All ducks are pigeons.
All pigeons are sparrows.
Conclusions :
I. All ducks are sparrows.
II. No egg is duck.
III. Some sparrows are hens.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) All I, II and III follow
Ans : (D)

28. Statements :
No man is tiger.
No tiger is cat.
Some cats are lions.
Some lions are tigers.
Conclusions :
I. Some tigers are cats.
II. Some cats are men.
III. Some lions are men.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P © Q’ means P is not smaller than Q
‘P * Q’ means P is not greater than Q
‘P @ Q’ means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q
‘P $ Q’ means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
‘P % Q’ means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/are definitely true and give your answers accordingly.

29. Statements :
K © L, L % O, O @ M, M * N
Conclusions : I. N © O
II. M $ L
III. K * N
IV. L @ N
(A) Only II is true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only I is true
(D) Either I or II is true
(E) None is true
Ans : (B)

30. Statements :
A * B, B $ C, C % D, D © E
Conclusions : I. D $ A
II. B $ D
III. E % C
IV. A @ E
(A) Only I is ture
(B) Only either I or II is true
(C) Only I and IV are true
(D) None is true
(E) Only IV is true
Ans : (D)

31. Statements :
F $ P, P @ R, R © S, S % T
Conclusions : I. R % F
II. S * P
III. P © T
IV. S % F
(A) Only I, II and III are true
(B) Only I and II are true
(C) Only III and IV are true
(D) Only I, II and IV are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (D)

32. Statements :
G % H, H * I, I $ J, J @ K
Conclusions : I. G % I
II. G % J
III. K $ I
IV. H * J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only I, II and III are true
(D) Only either I or II and III are true
(E) All are true
Ans : (A)

33. Statements :
V @ W, W % X, X * Y, Y $ Z
Conclusions : I. Z $ X
II. Y © V
III. W % Y
IV. Y @ W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) None is true
(E) Only III and IV are true
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 34–40) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is fourth to the left of F who is fifth to right of E. D is third to the right of A who is not immediate neighbour of E of F. B is third to left of H who is not immediate neighbour of E.

34. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above sitting arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) HFE
(B) DCG
(C) BHF
(D) AEF
(E) CGB
Ans : (D)

35. Who is between D and E ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) A
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following pairs are sitting between A and D ?
(A) FB
(B) GB
(C) FG
(D) FE
(E) GE
Ans : (C)

37. Who is third to the right of E ?
(A) B
(B) F
(C) D
(D) G
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. Who is to the immediate right of A ?
(A) G
(B) B
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. What is D’s position with respect to B ?
(a) Immediate right
(b) Fourth to the right
(c) Third to the left
(d) Immediate left
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (d)
(E) Only either (a) or (d)
Ans : (D)

40. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person ?
(A) CH
(B) GA
(C) BD
(D) FG
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

SBI Clerk (First Shift) Exam, 2009 (Held on 22-11-2009) : General Awareness Solved Paper

2010-06-03T20:05:00.000-07:00

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style="font-size:180%;">State Bank of India
Clerk (First Shift) Exam., 2009

(Held on 22-11-2009)
General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. As per the reports of the survey conducted by various agencies jointly, which of the following countries is adjudged as the ‘Most Favoured Nation’ for back office support to the world’s major multinationals ?
(A) China
(B) South Africa
(C) Singapore
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following nations is found at the top of the ‘World’s Green, Index’,
compiled by various global agencies jointly ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Britain
(E) Japan
Ans : (B)

3. The President of India in her first speech in the joint session of the current
parliament had said that every family living below poverty line would get 25 kg. of
wheat/rice per month at @ Rs. 3 per kg. To achieve this she recommended enacting of which of the following Acts ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) National Agricultural Commodities and Warehousing Act
(C) Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Act
(D) National Minimum Wages Act
(E) National Food Security Act
Ans : (E)

4. As per the news paper reports, India is in the process of purchasing some ‘mid-air refuellers’ from a global supplier. These ‘mid-air refuellers’ are being procured for which of the following establishments ?
(A) Indian Airlines and Air India
(B) Indian Air Force
(C) Ministry of Civil Aviation
(D) Pawan Hans
(E) Ministry of Surface Transport
Ans : (B)

5. The Govt. of India announced a special relief package of several thousand crores of rupees for which of the following sections of our society ?
(A) Senior Citizens
(B) Women Employees of Central Government
(C) Farmers
(D) Workers in unorganized sectors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

6. The present Lok Sabha is formed after the ……….
(A) 13th general elections
(B) 14th general elections
(C) 15th general elections
(D) 16th genral elections
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the number of India’s wireless subscribers has become about 400 million. Which of the following agencies, as a regulator, has published this data ?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
(B) MTNL
(C) Department of Telecommunication Services (DTS)
(D) Association of Cellular Service Providers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Late Y. S. Rajasekhar Reddy who passed away a few months back was holding which of the following positions ?
(A) Chief Minister of a state
(B) Union Cabinet Minister
(C) Governor of a State
(D) Chief Secretary of a State
(E) India’s permanent Representative in the UNO
Ans : (A)

9. The ‘H1N1’ virus is responsible for the outbreak of which of the following in the world ?
(A) AIDS
(B) Swine Flue
(C) Polio
(D) T.B.
(E) Chikungunya
Ans : (B)

10. Who amongst the following is NOT a member of the present Union Cabinet ?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kamalnath
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindia
(E) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Ans : (C)

11. Which of the following agencies has estimated that by the year 2015 about a quarter of India’s population will be living in extreme poverty ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) U N Economic and Social Council
(D) U N Food and Agricultural Organisation
(E) International Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)

12. The war between Russia and which of the following nations in 2008 is known as ‘August war’ ?
(A) Georgia
(B) Iran
(C) Slovakia
(D) Afghanistan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Which of the following is Bank Rate at present ?
(A) 3%
(B) 4%
(C) 5%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. India is NOT a member of which of the following organizations ?
(A) SAARC
(B) WTO
(C) BRIC
(D) UNO
(E) OPEC
Ans : (E)

15. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Ministry of Rural Development ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Janani Suraksha Yojana
(C) Know India Programme
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

16. Almost all Banks in India are running special schemes for providing banking services to rural poor. This concept is popularly known as ……….
(A) Faster Growth
(B) Trade Finance
(C) SME Finance
(D) Investment Banking
(E) Financial Inclusion
Ans : (E)

17. Special emphasis by the Govt. of India on which of the following will certainly improve the performance of the agriculture sector in country within a short span of time ?
(A) Focussed Public Distribution System
(B) Sanitation & Health Services
(C) Rural Employment
(D) Better irrigation facilities
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. The Reserve Bank of India is in the process of selling its stake in which of the
following agencies /organizations ?
(A) NABARD
(B) Food Corporation of India
(C) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(D) Bombay Stock Exchange
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. The market value of all final goods and services produced and/made with the
geographical boundaries of a country in a year is known as ……….
(A) Gross Domestic Product
(B) Gross National Saving
(C) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(D) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. Organisation of workers in which of the following groups has proved a very effective way of providing micro finance by banks to the rural people and poor in India ?
(A) Self Help Groups
(B) Vriksha Mitras
(C) Shiksha Sevaks
(D) Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)
(E) Link Workers
Ans : (A)

21. Which of the following things is done in the Union Budget 2009-10, to help ‘Tax payers’ in India ?
(A) Mobile phones, branded jewellery and leather products will cost less as the Custom duty is reduced on them
(B) Allocation under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana is increased by 30%
(C) Farm Loan Waiver scheme is extended to 31st December 2009
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax abolished
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. The Government of India has increased its allocation of funds to which of the following schemes by 144% in current union budget, as it has proved to be a very popular scheme amongst the rural job seekers ?
(A) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(B) National Food for Work Programme
(C) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(D) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following Acts is enacted to help the Union Govt. to manage its budgeted finances and fiscal deficit in a very disciplined manner ?
(A) The Competition Act
(B) The Banking Regulation Act
(C) The Negotiable Instruments Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following is NOT a banking related term ?
(A) Discount
(B) Credit
(C) Reynolds Number
(D) Post Dated Cheque
(E) Time Deposit
Ans : (C)

25. Who amongst the following was awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2009 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Abhishek Jha
(C) Saina Nehwal
(D) M. C. Mary Kom
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which of the following books is written by Sunil Gavaskar ?
(A) By God’s Decree
(B) Freedom From Fear
(C) Sunny Days
(D) Story of My Life
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Who amongst the following can never be a winner of the Nobel Prize ?
(A) An Author
(B) A Medical Doctor
(C) An Economist
(D) A Physicist
(E) A world famous Musician
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following awards is NOT given by the Government of India ?
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Padma Vibhushan
(C) Ashok Chakra
(D) Kalinga Prize
(E) All are given by the Government of India
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following operations is conducted after a gap of every ten years ?
(A) Economic survey
(B) Estimates of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
(C) Compilation of Human Development Report
(D) Census of Small Scale Enterprises
(E) General Census
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following schemes is launched to make Indian cities free from slums in days to come ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Bharat Nirman
(C) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. Which of the following is NOT the name of an irrigation system prevalent in India ?
(A) Sprinkler System
(B) Silage System
(C) Drip System
(D) Furrow System
(E) Canal System
Ans : (B)

32. Deep Joshi was given Raman Magsaysay Award in 2009 for his contribution in the field of ……….
(A) literature
(B) sports
(C) cinema
(D) journalism
(E) rural development
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Badminton ?
(A) Double Fault
(B) Punch
(C) Follow on
(D) Tee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Cashew nut is not produced as a major product in which of the following states ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)

35. Late Norman Borlaug who passed away recently, was famous for his contribution to which of the following in India ?
(A) Operation Flood
(B) Operation Black Board
(C) Co-operative Movement in Milk production
(D) Green Revolution
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following cups/trophies is NOT related with the game of cricket ?
(A) Deodhar Trophy
(B) Irani Trophy
(C) Subroto Cup
(D) Ranji Trophy
(E) ICC Trophy
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following books is written by Namita Gokhale ?
(A) A Himalayan Love Story
(B) Soul Mountain
(C) A New World
(D) The Last Hero
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following taxes is not levied by the Government of India ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Professional Tax
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Dividend Distribution Tax
(E) Capital Gain Tax
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following cups/trophies is associated with the game of Lawn Tennis ?
(A) Bomba Gold Cup
(B) Davis Cup
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Vizzy Trophy
(E) Nehru Trophy
Ans : (B)

40. Who amonst the following was a famous author and director ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Vijay Tendulkar
(C) Bidhanchandra Roy
(D) Bismillah Khan
(E) Vilayat Khan
Ans : (B)

Malwa Gramin Bank Clerk Exam: English Language Solved Paper

2010-05-27T20:54:00.002-07:00

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style="color:#006600;">Malwa Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
(Held on 31-1-2010)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold

to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a royal elephant which used to reside in the premises of the

king’s palace. The elephant was very dear to the king, so he was well-fed and well treated.

There was also a Dog who lived near the Elephant’s shed. He was very weak and skinny. He

was always fascinated by the smell of rich sweet rice being fed to the royal elephant.

One day, the Dog could no longer resist the aroma of the rice and somehow

managed to sneak into the Elephant's shed. He ate the grains of sweet rice that fell from

the Elephant’s mouth. He liked the rice so much, that he started going there daily to eat

the rice. For days, the huge Elephant didn’t notice the small dog as he was busy enjoying

the delicious food. Gradually, the Dog grew bigger and stronger eating such rich food.

Finally the Elephant noticed him and allowed him access to the food.

The Elephant enjoyed the company of the Dog and started sharing his food with him. They

also started spending time with each other and soon became good friends. They ate together,

slept together and played together. While playing, the Elephant would hold the Dog in his

trunk and swing him back and forth. Soon neither of them was happy without the other. They

became great friends and didn’t want to be separated from each other.

Then one day, a man saw the Dog and asked the Elephant-keeper, “I want to buy this Dog.

What price do you want for it ?” The Elephantkeeper didn’t own the Dog but sold it and

extracted a sum of money from this deal. The man took the Dog to his home

village, which was quite far away. The King’s Elephant became very sad after this incident.

He missed his friend a lot and started neglecting everything. He didn’t want to do anything

without his dear friend, so he stopped eating, drinking and even bathing.

Finally, the Elephant-keeper reported this to the King; however he didn’t mention anything

about the Dog. The King had a wise minister, who was known for his keen

understanding of animals. The King ordered the minister, “Go to the Elephant shed and find

out the reason for the Elephant’s condition”. The intelligent minister went to the Elephant

shed and found the Elephant very sad. He examined the Elephant and asked the

Elephantkeeper, “There is nothing wrong with this Elephant’s body, then why does he look so

sad ? I think this Elephant is grief stricken, possibly due to the loss of a dear friend.

Do you know if this Elephant shared a close friendship with anyone ?

The Elephant-keeper said, “There was a Dog who used to eat, sleep and play with the

Elephant. He was taken by a stranger three days ago”. The minister went back to the King

and said, “Your majesty, in my opinion, the royal Elephant is not sick, but he is lonesome

without his dear friend, the Dog”. The King said, “You’re right, friendship is one of the

most wonderful things of life. Do you know where that Dog is ?”

The Minister replied, “Elephantkeeper has informed me that a stranger took him away and he

doesn’t know his whereabouts”. The King asked, “How can we bring back my Elephant’s friend

and make him happy again ?” The Minister suggested, “Your Majesty, make a

declaration that whoever has the dog that used to live at the royal

Elephant’s shed will be penalized”. The King did the same and the man who had taken the

dog, instantly turned him loose when he heard the proclamation. As soon as he was freed,

the Dog ran back as fast as he could to the Elephant’s shed. The Elephant was so delighted

to see the Dog that he picked his friend up with his trunk and swung him back and forth.

The Dog wagged his tail, while the Elephant’s eyes sparkled with happiness. The King was

content to see the Elephant happy once again and rewarded the Minister for his wise

judgment.

1. What was the Minister’s diagnosis of the Elephant’s condition ?
(A) The Elephant hated his keeper
(B) The Elephant was lonely
(C) The Elephant was starving
(D) The Elephant had hurt his leg and as in pain
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. What method did the Minister suggest to the King to get back the Dog ?
(A) To declare that whoever had that particular Dog would be punished
(B) To keep a bowl of rice for the dog in the Elephant’s shed so that he could be lured

back to the palace
(C) To command the Elephantkeeper to look for the Dog in the village
(D) To persuade the Elephant to call out to the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Why had the Elephant become very sad ?
(A) He no longer got his daily bowl of rice
(B) He was unhappy with the King for having sold the Dog
(C) He missed his friend the Dog
(D) He was sold to an unknown man by his keeper
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. What did the Elephant-keeper do to the Dog ?
(A) He sold the Dog to an unknown man for a price
(B) He hit the Dog as the Dog was eating the Elephant’s food
(C) He killed the Dog
(D) He complained to the King about the Dog
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Friends and Enemies
(B) The Playful Dog
(C) The King and the Minister
(D) The Elephant-keeper
(E) The Bond of Friendship
Ans : (E)

6. Why was the Elephant taken care of ?
(A) He was a very special Elephant as he could talk to Dogs
(B) He was a very loyal Elephant
(C) He was the strongest Elephant in the Kingdom
(D) He was weak and the King had a lot of sympathy for him
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. Why did the Dog start going to the Elephant’s shed everyday ?
(A) He liked the Elephant a lot and wanted to become friends with him
(B) He was being fed by the King everyday
(C) He was fond of the Elephant’s shed
(D) He liked the taste of the rice being fed to the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. What did the Dog do once he was set free ?
(A) He ate rice to his heart’s content
(B) He thanked the King for his kindness
(C) He ran away from the Kingdom to a place faraway
(D) He ran back to his friend the Elephant
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. What of the following can definitely be said about the Elephantkeeper ?
(1) He was greedy
(2) He was insensitive
(3) He was brave
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following can definitely be said about the King?
(1) He was compassionate
(2) He was deceitful
(3) He loved animals.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) All the three (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word/group of words which is most

similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as

used in the passage.

11. EXTRACTED
(A) Pulled
(B) Inserted
(C) Wing
(D) Dug out
(E) Received
Ans : (E)

12. DECLARATION
(A) Pact
(B) Praise
(C) Announcement
(D) Writ
(E) Resolve
Ans : (C)

13. KEEN
(A) Shallow
(B) Urgent
(C) Concentrated
(D) Deep
(E) Eager
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most

opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as

used in the passage.

14. RESIST
(A) Give in
(B) Please
(C) Struggle
(D) Try out
(E) Defy
Ans : (A)

15. SEPARATED
(A) Stuck
(B) United
(C) Estranged
(D) Bound
(E) Joined
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given

below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the

sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and

‘No correction is required”, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Trisha could not solve the problem at all and was at her wit’s ending.
(A) her wit’s end
(B) the wit ends
(C) her witty end
(D) the wit end
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

17. It’s a small theatre and the seats are uncomfortable, but the saving

grace is that the air conditioning is good.
(A) grace to save
(B) gracing save
(C) saver grace
(D) save to grace
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

18. Tarun had to prepare the document for his meeting urgently but he was hardly

pressed for time.
(A) hard pressed for timely
(B) hard pressed for time
(C) hardly press to time
(D) hard pressing to timely
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

19. Suraj lied from his teeth to get out of the tense situation with his

boss—
(A) lies for his teeth
(B) lie to his teeth
(C) lied through his teeth
(D) lied from his tooth
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

20. Satish lay in bed wide awaken as he was worried about his exams

starting the next day—
(A) widen awakening
(B) widely awake
(C) wide and awake
(D) wide awake
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words

printed in bold types is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and

(D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt

or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly

spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the

words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the

context of the sentence. mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. People went crazy (A) when the musician along with his

friend, (B) took to the staging (C) and belted out

popular (D) tracks. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

22. For a growing number of coupals, (A) adoption is not a helpless

compulsion (B) but also deliberate, (C) and often

noble, (D) choice. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. On two consecutive (A) nights the two greatest icones

(B) of show business were honoured with unprecedented (C)

affection. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

24. We are so busy looking at mediocrity (A) that when truly outstanding

achievement (B) stares us in the face we resort (C) to

the same terms of praise. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

25. The unlikely migration (A) was officially (B)

explained as a move to meet expanding (C) business

oportunities. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3),

(4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the

questions given below them.
(1) He immediately acknowledged Mohan’s good work and invited him to his home for dinner.
(2) One day a wealthy merchant sent his son’s bicycle to the shop for repair.
(3) The next day the merchant came to claim the bicycle and noticed that it was shiny.
(4) After repairing the bicycle, Mohan cleaned it up and made it look new.
(5) Once upon a time, there was a boy named Mohan who worked as an apprentice in a bicycle

shop.
(6) Other apprentices in the shop laughed at Mohan for doing unnecessary work.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31– 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the

sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E).

(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. In about five minutes, they would (A) / cover the distance from the road to the point

(B) / where the waves would (C) / begin lick their feet. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. The devastating experiences (A) / of many wars taught some countries (B) / the

necessary of pursuing peace (C) / at the expense of nationalist egos. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. The former superstar recently (A) / visit an orphanage, (B) / fuelling speculation that

(C) / she is planning to adopt a child. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. Accordance to a new study (A) / taking steps to remain healthy and young (B) / may help

delay (C) / the onset of Alzheimer’s disease. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

35. A day after he was diagnosed with (A) / swine flu, preventive measures were put in

place (B) / to ensure that others were not (C) / affected by the dreaded virus. (D) No

error (E)
Ans : (B)

36. The administration has conclusive (A) / that it is retailers who are (B) / responsible

for upsetting (C) / the city’s household budget. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

37. The assurances, unfortunately, (A) / remained on paper, as (B) / neither the Centre or

the state initiated steps (C) / for the development of the backward region. (D) No error

(E)
Ans : (C)

38. Sediment deposit along the coast (A) / may be the primary reason for (B) / the change

in conditions, (C) / but a lot more remains to be understand. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

39. A committee will be set up (A) / to explore pros and cons by (B) / a common fee

structure, and will (C) / take a final decision on it within a week. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. The infection which causes (A) / gums to bleed and teeth to fall out (B) / results from

the build-up of (C) / a particular bacteria that is common to most mouths. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of

which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five

words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate

word in each case.

Once upon a time there was a prince who wanted to marry a princess; but she would have to

be a real princess. He …(41)… all over the world to find one, but nowhere

could he get what he wanted. One evening during a terrible storm; there was thunder and

lightning, and the rain poured down in torrents. Suddenly a knocking was

…(42)… at the palace door, and the old king went to open it. It was a

princess standing out there. But, good gracious ! What a sight the rain and the wind had

made her look. The water ran down her hair and clothes; into the toes of her shoes and out

again at the heels. And yet she insisted that she was a real princess. Well, we’ll soon

…(43)… out, thought the old queen. But she said nothing, went into the

bedroom, took all the bedding off the bedstead, and …(44)… a pea on the

bottom; then she took twenty mattresses and laid them on the pea, and then twenty quilts on

…(45)… of the mattresses. On this the princess had to lie all night. In

the …(46)… she was asked how she had slept. “Oh, very badly !” said she.

“I scarcely closed my eyes all night. Heaven only knows what was in the bed. But I was

lying on something hard, as a …(47)… I am black and blue all over my body.

It’s horrible !” Now they knew that she was a real princess because she had

…(48)… the pea right through the twenty mattresses and the twenty quilts.

Nobody but a real princess could be as …(49)… as that. So the prince took

her for his wife, for now he …(50)… that he had a real princess.

41. (A) called
(B) tour
(C) sent
(D) saw
(E) travelled
Ans : (E)

42. (A) made
(B) felt
(C) heard
(D) seen
(E) sounded
Ans : (C)

43. (A) assure
(B) find
(C) judge
(D) mark
(E) try
Ans : (B)

44. (A) drew
(B) flung
(C) placed
(D) cooked
(E) stitch
Ans : (C)

45. (A) top
(B) head
(C) bottom
(D) between
(E) middle
Ans : (A)

46. (A) morning
(B) dinner
(C) room
(D) fields
(E) dark
Ans : (A)

47. (A) vengeance
(B) price
(C) cause
(D) result
(E) time
Ans : (D)

48. (A) slept
(B) felt
(C) located
(D) carried
(E) found
Ans : (B)

49. (A) worried
(B) rough
(C) irritable
(D) sensitive
(E) pretty
Ans : (D)

50. (A) trust
(B) assured
(C) wanted
(D) think
(E) knew
Ans : (E)

I.D.B.I. (Executive) Exam, 2009 : English Language Solved Paper

2010-05-27T20:11:00.000-07:00

I.D.B.I. (Executive) Exam., 2009

English Language : Solved Paper

(Held on 13-12-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

As the price of gasoline spiked to record highs in 2007 and 2008, interest in alternatives to fossil fuels, and electric transportation in particular, also spiked. It raised, however, many questions about the true environmental impact of electric cars.

The electric car is being upheld as an ethical, green, nifty and cheap alternative to the carbon dioxideemitting automobiles clogging city roads around the world today. Though electric cars are not a popular choice, the industry’s future plans are riding high on the hope that on improving certain factors, (which are currently deficient) such as, effective marketing, a growing public awareness of the need for clean air and the increase in demand, the prices would eventually be driven down.

However, battery powered vehicles may still fail to completely replace liquid fuel-fed ones but with more electric and hybrid vehicles on the road, there is greater scope for a makeover in the way environment is impacted by the automobiles. However, if the power to charge the battery-operated vehicle is to be sourced from grids using conventional coal-fired power plants, the electric car wouldn’t really be all that green. These would actually cause an increase in demand on the power plant’s energy production causing them to produce more power and thus more pollution, unless greener ways of energy production are used. But as of now the bulk of the electricity used to charge the batteries of electric vehicles is generated by fossil fuel burning power stations and only 12% by the clean methods. Also, the amount of energy used by coal fired power stations to create the electricity to recharge electric vehicles make them half as efficient as diesel cars. Recent studies indicate that carbon emissions may reduce only by an insignificant level even if there is a sudden surge in demand for electric cars.

Other factors making the rechargeable cars less efficient include the amount of electricity lost in the journey between the coal fired power stations which generate it and the point where it recharges the car, and the energy lost by the faulty firstgeneration batteries and motors. The researchers calculated that of the energy burned in a power station, only a quarter reaches an electric car after leakages and losses along the supply chain, giving the vehicle an energy efficiency score of 24%. This amounts to more than 75% energy loss much before the car is even put on ignition. A modern diesel engine, by contrast, achieves 45% efficiency. This suggests that if fossil fuels are to be burned, it is much more efficient to do it within the engine of a vehicle rather than at a power station and then try to send it via the National Grid, where a lot of energy is wasted, and finally to store it in a battery which in itself might leak power.

Electric cars may still survive since the car’s emissions would be far less polluting than those that run on fossil fuels. With very minor emissions of sulphur caused when the batteries charge and discharge, when compared to current emissions standards, electric cars are zero emissions. The gasoline engine by comparison does not fare as well. Gasoline and diesel fuel burned in internal combustion engines for transportation account for 54 per cent of nitrites of oxygen, 89 per cent of carbon monoxide and 28 per cent of carbon dioxide pollution produced. Switching to electric vehicles drops those percentages to zero, and only slightly increases sulphur emissions. So even when the power plants burn dirty fuel, the amount of pollution is less than an oil burning car would create. And this picture is improving all the time, as clean energy sources are added to the grid.

The goal should be to make more electric cars with greater incentive for consumers and producers, as well as feeding grids with more power from renewable resources–as per the objectives stated in the numerous plans on Climate Changes. And till this goal is achieved, the debate whether controlling emission at a few power plants is more convenient than controlling emission at millions of tailpipes is, would continue.

1. Why does the author fear that the electric cars may eventually not be very eco-friendly ?
(A) The exhausts of these cars emit as much pollutants as the oil fuelled cars
(B) Electric cars, though have lesser quantity of other emissions, the sulphur emissions will rise substantially, thus harming the environment
(C) The electricity for charging the batteries of these cars comes from power plants using pollution causing fossil fuels
(D) Only (A) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2 . What, according to the author, needs to be done in order to make electric cars more eco-friendly ?
(A) Encouraging powerplants to generate electricity using the eco-friendly methods
(B) Setting certain emission standards for electric cars as is done for the oil consuming cars
(C) Controlling Sulphur emissions which are one of the major contributors to environmental pollution at present
(D) Making provisions for easy availability of recharging sockets at all the places
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following suggestions does the author make in order to popularize the electric cars ?
(A) Discontinue the use of fuel powered cars completely
(B) Optimize the benefits of using electric cars to both consumers as well as the producers
(C) To supply grids with renewable sources of energy for the production of electricity
(D) Only (B) and (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. Why, according to the author, are electric cars not a popular option among the people ?
(1) The recharging points are not easily available everywhere.
(2) Effective marketing of the eco-friendly cars has been lacking.
(3) Lack of appreciation among the people for the need of unpolluted air.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Why, according to the author, may the electric cars survive despite all their current deficiencies ?
(1) Electric cars will be subsidised and thus would prove to be cost efficient to the buyers.
(2) An increasing number of grids are shifting to alternate forms of energy production.
(3) In the future, incentives would be provided to those driving electric cars.
(4) Pollution caused by the electric cars is far less as compared to the fossil fuel driven cars.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3) and (4)
(C) Only (2) and (4)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The failure of the power grids
(B) The rise and fall of cars using fossil fuels
(C) The adverse effects of pollution caused by the power grids
(D) The growing popularity of the electric cars
(E) Why eco-friendliness of electric cars is a fiction at present
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Electric car may completely replace the fossil fuel powered cars one day
(B) Electric cars have brought about a drastic improvement in the pollution levels at present
(C) Electric cars have universally been accepted as the environment friendly cars
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in context of the given passage ?
(A) Nearly three-fourth of the total energy generated for powering electric cars is wasted
(B) The interest in electric cars increased during the last year when most of the power grids shifted to clean sources of fuel
(C) Electric car engines do not produce by carbon emissions
(D) There would not be any noticeable improvement in the pollution level if the oil burning cars are shifted to electric cars at present
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. Why, according to the author, is the efficienty of the electric cars low even before they actually hit the roads ?
(1) A lot of energy is lost during the transit of electricity from the grid to the recharge point.
(2) The manufacturing cost of the electric cars is much higher than that of the other cars.
(3) The batteries and the motors of the electric cars are still relatively new and waste a lot of power.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (2)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 10–12) Choose the word / group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. PICTURE
(A) Situation
(B) Photograph
(C) Representation
(D) Art work
(E) Idea
Ans : (A)

11. FEEDING
(A) Eating
(B) Supplying
(C) Consuming
(D) Encouraging
(E) Nourishing
Ans : (B)

12. SURGE
(A) Alteration
(B) Modification
(C) Intensification
(D) Increase
(E) Evolution
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. SLIGHTLY
(A) Adequately
(B) Miserly
(C) Certainly
(D) Remotely
(E) Substantially
Ans : (E)

14. SWITCHING
(A) Prolonging
(B) Withdrawing
(C) Continuing
(D) Exchanging
(E) Alternating
Ans : (B)

15. INCENTIVES
(A) Deterrents
(B) Preventions
(C) Disadvantages
(D) Prohibitions
(E) Liability
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. Sheela had to travel all the way back (A) / when she remembered that (B) / she had forgot to take (C) / important documents with her. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The party is holding a meeting (A) / in order to begin the (B) / painful and difficult process (C) / of rethink its political strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The only bad thing about (A) / these flowers are the (B) / pollen which causes (C) / allergy in many people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

19. Nobody in the bus (A) / offered to give their seat (B) / to the elderly lady who had to (C) / travel a long distance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

20. This is the only organization (A) / which could somehow continue (B) / to making profits (C) / in the face of recession. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

21. Many more would have died (A) / if they hadn’t received (B) / the timely helping from (C) / the relief team. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. A man along with (A) / his wife and two children (B) / were rescued with the help (C) / of an army helicopter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

23. In the past two decades, (A) / preventive measures have (B) / drastically reduced the (C) / occurrence of polio in children. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

24. Neither the ministers (A) / nor the intelligence sources (B) / was aware of the coup (C) / being planned in the country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. Certain amounts of stress (A) / at work is natural but (B) / it is important that one learns (C) / to keep it in the right proportion. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

26. An NGO is working towards providing free education to the girl child so that every girl can stand on their own feet.
(A) stands on their own
(B) stand on her own
(C) stand in her own
(D) stand on their own’s
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

27. The animal rescuers anesthetized the dog which had been with great pain after having met with an accident.
(A) which had been in
(B) which is being with
(C) who had been in
(D) who has been at
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

28. In its final decision, the court ruled that all the allegations levelled for the accused were false and baseless.
(A) allegation levelled against the
(B) allegations level against that
(C) allegations levelled against the
(D) allegations levelled with that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

29. If I leave early from home, I could have made it on time to the airport.
(A) If I would leave early
(B) Had I leave earlier
(C) If I could left early
(D) had I left earlier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Thousands of fire-fighters were deployed at the factory when a fire suddenly broke out due to a short circuit.
(A) on the factory when
(B) at the factory while
(C) at that factory when
(D) in the factory while
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Rearrange the following sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
1. This decision on which force is to be maximized lies with every individual.
2. This belief comes from the fact that science reflects the social forces prevailing at a particular time.
3. We must maximize the constructive forces of science and the destructive ones should be minimized.
4. Contrary to popular belief, the greatest enemy of mankind is not science but war.
5. She/he must understand that science can only help us in providing ways to reach at either war or peace and is actually not responsible for causing these.
6. During peaceful times science is constructive and during war, science is perverted to destructive ends.

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

35. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/ phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

Asteroids are rocks and debris which are the leftovers of the construction of our solar system. Most are in a belt, which …(36)… between Mars and Jupiter. However, the gravitational influence of the giant planets, like Jupiter, or an impact by a comet can knock these large rocks out of their orbit, thus hurling them …(37)… the Earth. Many bodies have struck Earth in the …(38)…, and a widely accepted theory blames the impact of an asteroid for the exinction of dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. The scale of such a disaster can be understood by the example of a relatively small-size asteroid strike in Siberia in early 20th century which …(39)… more than half a million acres of forest. However, what relieves the common man of the …(40)… regarding asteroid impact is the fact that many scientific groups are dedicated towards tracking the asteroid paths and orbit all around the year. With advanced equipments and technology, they can predict any upcoming danger much in …(41)…. According to them the chances of finding such an asteroid crossing Earth in this or the next five generation’s lifetime is only one in thousands. Even if such an asteroid is found out, there will be …(42)… of time to track it, measure its orbit precisely, and plan a system for …(43)… it from its orbit away from that of the Earth’s. There will be no great hurry, and no great panic. It would be a project for all the world’s nations to take part in. It could be a globally unifying event. Because it will be …(44)… long before it actually hits the Earth. It probably would take only a small measure such as chemical rockets, or perhaps an atomic explosion to divert it from a threatening path.

Thus, in short, it can be said that though the impact would pose enormous risk to all living forms on Earth, the odds of it occurring within our lifetimes is very …(45)… and it is unnecessary to run around believing that the sky is falling.

36. (A) rotates
(B) appears
(C) strikes
(D) encircle
(E) exists
Ans : (A)

37. (A) past
(B) around
(C) towards
(D) against
(E) inside
Ans : (C)

38. (A) future
(B) centuries
(C) earliest
(D) past
(E) history
Ans : (D)

39. (A) extinct
(B) devastated
(C) wasted
(D) shrivelled
(E) fell
Ans : (B)

40. (A) apprehension
(B) expectation
(C) distrust
(D) sufferings
(E) hesitation
Ans : (A)

41. (A) sooner
(B) accuracy
(C) advance
(D) time
(E) distance
Ans : (C)

42. (A) dearth
(B) loss
(C) most
(D) lack
(E) plenty
Ans : (E)

43. (A) blocking
(B) deflecting
(C) avoiding
(D) destroying
(E) changing
Ans : (B)

44. (A) experienced
(B) harmful
(C) perceived
(D) noticed
(E) devastating
Ans : (C)

45. (A) low
(B) large
(C) narrow
(D) high
(E) few
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

46. After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a ……… last year and have not ……… each other ever since.
(A) fight, talked
(B) argument, met
(C) dispute, seen
(D) quarrel, admired
(E) difference, introduced
Ans : (C)

47. The workers, several of ……… had complained about their low wages earlier have now ……… to move the court for the labour rights.
(A) who, indicated
(B) whom, decided
(C) which, threatened
(D) them, resolved
(E) number, warmed
Ans : (B)

48. The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ……… an apartment to each of them at ……… rates.
(A) demolished, fast
(B) announced, less
(C) provided, high
(D) acquired, low
(E) promised, subsidised
Ans : (E)

49. The organization was deeply …………by difficulties a decade ago but the new CEO brought
many ……… changes in it and took it to a new high.
(A) indebted, necessary
(B) plagued, vital
(C) coping, more
(D) hurt, critical
(E) shaken, inevitable
Ans : (B)

50. The prime minister who is ……… in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very ……… by the news of India winning the world cup.
(A) visiting, happy
(B) residing, obliged
(C) intruding, dejected
(D) staying, pleased
(E) resting, cheerful
Ans : (D)

IDBI Bank Executive Exam, 2009 : Reasoning Solved Paper

2010-05-27T06:49:00.001-07:00

IDBI Bank Executive Exam., 2009

Reasoning : Solved Paper

(Held on 13-12-2009)

1. If ‘M’ denotes ‘+’, ‘N’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘R’ denotes ‘–’ and Q denotes ‘x’ then—
15 M 12 Q 5 R 40 N 8 = ?
(A) 70
(B) 130
(C) 45
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. How many meaningful English words can be formed using the third, fifth, ninth and eleventh letters of the word ‘COMMANDMENT’ using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

3. Seema correctly remembers that she took leave after 21st October and before 27th October. Her colleague Rita took leave on 23rd October but Seema was present on that day. If 24th October was a public holiday and 26th October was Sunday, on which day in October did Seema take leave ?
(A) 22nd October
(B) 25th October
(C) 22nd or 25th October
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) The following questions are based on the five three letter words given below—
PUN SAD CRY FOE STY
If each of the words is rearranged in alphabetical order then—
4. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word using each letter only once, from the first letters of each of the five words after the letters of each word are rearranged in alphabetical order, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one word can be formed, ‘X’ is the answer and if no such word can be formed then ‘W’ is the answer.
(A) E
(B) N
(C) X
(D) W
(E) S
Ans : (C)

5. How many words will remain unchanged even after their rearrangement in alphabetical order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

6. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘VERIFIED’ each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

7. The fare paying capacity of people who travel on routes connecting to small towns is very low. Most successful airlines which operate in such regions have a large number of seats.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above information ?
(A) Regional airlines are quite profitable.
(B) People from cities are increasingly travelling to small towns.
(C) Regional airlines have to charge low fares in order to be profitable.
(D) The number of people travelling from small towns to cities is massive.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If ‘A ×D’ means ‘A is the sister of D’, ‘A + D’ means ‘D is the daughter of A’ and ‘A ÷ D’ means ‘A is the mother of D’, then how will N is the aunt of M be denoted ?
(A) M + L ×N
(B) M ÷ L + N
(C) L ×N ÷ M
(D) N ×L ÷ M
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. M earns more than X and less than T. V earns more than M and T. R earns more than only X. Who earns the least among the five of them ?
(A) X
(B) V
(C) M
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. The Court has stayed proceedings against the stockbroker. He can now return to the country. Which of the following can be assumed from the given information ?
(A) The stockbroker is innocent.
(B) The police cannot arrest the stockbroker.
(C) The judge has been bribed.
(D) Complaints filed against the stockbroker have been withdrawn.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. A sits third to the left of C and second to the right of E. B sits second to the right of D who is not an immediate neighbour of E. H sits second to the left of F. G is not an immediate neighbour of D.

11. Which of the following pairs has only one person sitting-between them, if the counting is done in clockwise direction ?
(A) F, G
(B) H, G
(C) H, C
(D) H, B
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Who sits third to the right of E ?
(A) D
(B) G
(C) F
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. What is the position of G with respect to A’s position ?
(A) Immediately to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fourth to the right
Ans : (D)

14. Who sits between E and A ?
(A) F
(B) D
(C) G
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

15. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of how many members (excluding A) would remain unchanged ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements :
Some stoves are ovens.
All ovens are cylinders.
Some engines are stoves.
Some metals are cylinders.
Conclusions :
I. Some ovens are metals
II. Some cylinders are stoves
III. Some ovens are engines
IV. No engine is a cylinder
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans : (E)

17. Statements :
Some cars are buses.
Some buses are trains.
All airplanes are trains.
All trucks are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some airplanes are trucks.
II. Some cars are trains.
III. Some trucks are airplanes.
IV. No truck is train.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
All tools are trees.
Some trees are flowers.
No hammer is flower.
Conclusions :
I. All hammers are tools.
II. No tool is flower.
III. Some hammers are trees.
IV. Some flowers are tools.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I and either II or IV follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. Statements :
Some bags are pockets.
Some pockets are trousers.
All skirts are pockets.
Some belts are bags.
Conclusions :
I. Some trousers are belts.
II. Some skirts are bags.
III. No trouser is belt.
IV. Some skirts are trousers.
(A) All follow
(B) Only II and IV follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

20. Statements :
Some cats are tigers.
All lions are cats.
Some horses are lions.
All horses are animals.
Conclusions :
I. Some lions are tigers.
II. No horse is tiger.
III. Some horses are cats.
IV. Some horses are tigers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and either II or IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Statements :
Some clocks are radios.
No radio is laptop.
Some fridges are clocks.
Some clocks are laptops.
Conclusions :
I. Some fridges are laptops.
II. No radio is fridge.
III. Laptops are either fridges or clocks.
IV. No laptop is fridge.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only either I or IV follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. Statements :
Some notes are coins.
Some papers are plastics.
All coins are papers.
No note is cardboard.
Conclusions :
I. Some notes are papers.
II. Some coins are plastics.
III. No paper is cardboard.
IV. No note is plastic.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Statements :
All stools are desks.
No desk is shelf.
All shelves are cupboards.
Some cupboards are mirrors.
Conclusions :
I. No mirror is shelf.
II. No stool is shelf.
III. No cupboard is desk.
IV. No mirror is desk.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 24–28) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
M ? 2 D B 7 A 4 * 9 6 $ T + N 5 @ V E W # U 8 F © 3

24. How many such prime numbers are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

25. If the places of the symbols are interchanged with those of the numbers immediately following them in the given arrangement then which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) V
(B) @
(C) 5
(D) N
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. Which of the following is the seventh letter to the left of # ?
(A) A
(B) N
(C) T
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
2 7 B 4 6 9 T 5 N ?
(A) @ W E
(B) 5 E V
(C) V U #
(D) V # W
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. If the symbols and numbers are dropped from the given arrangement and then the letters are rearranged in alphabetical order which of the following will be the sixth from the left end ?
(A) M
(B) F
(C) N
(D) E
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 29–33) Below in each question are given two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the
following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statements I and II are effects of some common causes.

29. I. There has been mass recruitment of IT professionals by Indian IT companies
II. Many developed countries are increasingly outsourcing IT related functions to India and China.
Ans : (B)

30. I. Many farmers have given up jute cultivation as it is no longer economically viable.
II. The textile ministry has proposed a hike in the Minimum Support Price of jute.
Ans : (A)

31. I. The government is considering changes in the Land Acquisition Act.
II. Several large infrastructure development projects have been stalled due to unavailability of land.
Ans : (E)

32. I. The Government is considering the possibility of involving private sector companies in highway construction projects.
II. The implementation of many highway projects undertaken by government agencies is behind schedule in various states.
Ans : (B)

33. I. The price of aircraft fuel has risen during the past few months.
II. Many passenger airlines in India have been forced to cut their air fares by about 10 per cent.
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 34–40) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e., ‘None of these’ as your answer.
Letter :
W R A P G B M U S E F T N D
Digit/Symbol Codes :
$ 8 ! 2 7 # 9 @ ? 5 b 4 * 6
Conditions :
I. If the middle letter is a vowel, the codes for the first and the fourth letters are to be interchanged.
II. If the first two letters are consonants, the first letter is to be coded, no code may be given to the second letter and the remaining three letters are to be coded.
III. If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as the code for the consonant.

34. NEAST—
(A) ?5!*4
(B) ?5!4*
(C) 4*!5?
(D) 45!?
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. DAEWP—
(A) 6!5$2
(B) $!562
(C) 6!52$
(D) $265!
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

36. PEFTG—
(A) 25b42
(B) 2b4G
(C) 25b47
(D) 47b25
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. SMGBE—
(A) ?975#
(B) 97#5?
(C) ?97#5
(D) ?#79?
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

38. UGREN—
(A) *785@
(B) *785*
(C) @785@
(D) @85*
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

39. RBMFN—
(A) 8#9b4
(B) b*98#
(C) 89b*
(D) 8#9b*
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. MUTWA—
(A) 9@$4!
(B) 94$!
(C) 94@!$
(D) 9@4$!
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—

A bank is disbursing educational loans to meritorious students. Loans will be made available to applicants who possess the following criteria.
The candidate must—
I. Be a citizen of India
II. Have secured admission to a post graduate course (Masters or P. G. Diploma) offered by an Indian or foreign university in India.
III. Have secured 60 per cent marks in the entrance examination for the course.
IV. Have security (property/LIC policy) equivalent to the loan amount.
However if the applicant fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(1) At (II) above the case may be referred to the Loan committee.
(2) At (IV) above guarantee of a third party who has an account with the bank may be obtained.
Mark answer :
(A) If the loan is to be sanctioned.
(B) If the loan is to be rejected.
(C) If the loan is to be referred to the loan committee.
(D) If guarantee from an account holder is needed.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

41. Shruti has secured admission to MNV University in Chennai for a post-graduate degree in management. She obtained 65 per cent in the entrance test for the course. She has an Indian passport.
Ans : (E)

42. Milind has applied and secured admission for a post-graduate degree in advertising at MIC University Ahmedabad. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. He secured 70 per cent in his graduation and is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

43. Prakash has applied for a postgraduate course in IT and Animation which will commence from January in Kolkata. He has secured admission to the course having obtained 60 per cent in the written entrance test.
His uncle who has an account with the bank is willing to stand guarantor.
Ans : (E)

44. Anil is an Indian science graduate who has secured admission for a Masters degree in Computer Science from a prestigious Indian University. He stood first in the entrance test with 82 per cent marks. His family is willing to use their house, which is equivalent in value to the loan amount, as security. He will stay with his uncle in Dubai during the course.
Ans : (A)

45. Nikhil’s part time P.G. Diploma in Management will begin in December. He secured 65 per cent in the All India entrance exam and has secured admission to a college in Mumbai. He has requested a transfer for the
duration of the course. He has an LIC policy equivalent to the loan amount. Nikhil holds an Indian passport.
Ans : (A)

46. Maria secured 75% in the entrance exam to NVT College Pune and has obtained admission. An Indian national she has the necessary property to offer as security for the loan amount. The duration of her undergraduate degree course in Computer Applications is 3 years.
Ans : (E)

47. Deepa obtained 70 per cent in her engineering entrance exam for her Masters and has secured admission to the college of her choice. She has an LIC policy equivalent in value to the loan amount. Her interview to obtain a visa for her course in the U.S. is on November 25. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

48. Sudhir has applied for a postgraduate degree in Pharmacy at All India Institute at New Delhi. He is an Indian citizen and having secured 60 per cent in his entrance exam, he has been granted admission. He does not have any property to use as security. His father who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)

49. Anandi has secured admission for a P.G. Diploma in Management at a University in Allahabad with 72 per cent in the entrance examination. She has an LIC Policy amounting to the loan amount. She is an Indian citizen.
Ans : (A)

50. Ravi has obtained admission to the Indian Institute of Research at Chandigarh for a Masters in Mathematics offered only to Indian citizens. He secured 68 per cent in the entrance test. He does not have any security against the loan. However his employer who has an account with the bank is willing to guarantee the loan.
Ans : (D)

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2010 : English Language Solved Paper

2010-05-27T06:28:00.000-07:00

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
Held on 21-02-2010
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

During the reign of King Veer, there lived a wise magistrate. Haripant’s verdicts were always just and people from all over the vast kingdom came to him in order to settle their disputes. In the city where Haripant lived, there was a greedy ghee merchant named Niranjan. He always kept twenty barrels of ghee. Of these, fifteen would contain good quality ghee and the remaining would be adulterated. He would mix the two and sell it. This went on for a long time, till finally the people fed up of being cheated, complained to Haripant.

Haripant had the ghee examined and found it to be adulterated. He gave Niranjan a choice of punishment– drink the five barrels of adulterated ghee from his shop, or receive a hundred lashings, or pay a thousand gold coins to the treasury. Niranjan thought for a while. Losing a thousand gold coins was too much and a hundred lashings too painful. So he decided to drink the five barrels of ghee. Though Niranjan sold adulterated goods in his shop, he made sure his own food was of the best quality. So after drinking one barrel of ghee he began to feel sick. By the second barrel, he was vomiting. At this point he decided to opt for the lashings instead. But he was pampered and his body was unused to any harsh treatment. After ten lashes, he started trembling and by twenty he was giddy. ‘Stop !’ he screamed. ‘I will pay the thousand gold coins !’ And he handed them over.

So he ended up suffering all three punishments, something he did not forget in a hurry and the people of the city got to use only the best quality ghee in their food from then on !

1. Why did Niranjan keep five barrels of adulterated ghee ?
(A) To sell to customers who could not afford high quality ghee
(B) To make a profit by cheating people
(C) Being a miser he kept the low quality ghee for his family
(D) Demand for this ghee was low so he kept only a small quantity
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. Why did the people decide to go to Haripant with their complaint ?
(A) He was close to the King and would get justice for them
(B) They knew Niranjan was afraid of Haripant who punished people severely
(C) They were confident that he would listen to their complaint and give a fair judgement
(D) He was the only magistrate in the entire kingdom
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Why did Haripant allow Niranjan to choose his own punishment ?
(A) He felt sorry for Niranjan
(B) Niranjan’s offence was minor
(C) He did not want Niranjan to appeal to the King for leniency
(D) He did not want to give the wrong punishment
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following can be said about Niranjan ?
1. He took a lot of time to make any decision.
2. He only cheated those who would not dare complain against him.
3. He was allergic to ghee and fell sick whenever he consumed it.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. Why did Niranjan decide to drink adulterated ghee for his punishment ?
(A) Since the barrels were from his shop he thought he could substitute the adulterated ghee with good ghee
(B) He wanted to prove that the quality of ghee he sold was good
(C) He was greedy and had a big appetite so he thought he would easily drink the ghee
(D) He considered it the easiest of the punishments as he did not realise what effect the ghee would have on him
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. How did Haripant arrive at the conclusion that Niranjan sold adulterated ghee ?
(A) Niranjan was ill when he drank the ghee from his shop
(B) He had the ghee tested to see if it was adulterated
(C) He trusted the word of those who had complained to him
(D) He too was duped by Niranjan
(E) Niranjan admitted his guilt when confronted
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
1. Niranjan’s customers were so angry that they beat him mercilessly.
2. King Veer’s kingdom was large.
3. Niranjan had a very good memory.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. What made Niranjan opt for paying the fine last of all ?
(A) He would be deeply in debt if he paid it
(B) He knew Haripant would keep the money for himself
(C) No one was willing to lend him money
(D) He could not bear to part with such a huge sum
(E) His business would be ruined if he paid such a large fine
Ans : (D)

9. What effect did Niranjan’s punishment have ?
(A) All the merchants learnt their lesson and supplied only good quality ghee
(B) Niranjan lost all his customers and had to close down his shop
(C) People began to fear Haripant because of his severe punishments
(D) Niranjan gave in to all his customers’ demands even if it meant making a loss
(E) Niranjan improved the quality of the ghee that he sold
Ans : (A)

10. Why did Niranjan suffer three punishments ?
(A) He had cheated so many people that his punishment had to be severe
(B) Haripant had ordered this so that Niranjan would never repeat his offence
(C) Haripant wanted to make an example of him so that other merchants would not cheat their customers
(D) Niranjan could not decide which punishment to undergo so Haripant awarded him all the three punishments
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SETTLE
(A) Resolve
(B) Occupy
(C) Compromise
(D) Arrange
(E) Quiet
Ans : (A)

12. CHEATED
(A) Unfaithful
(B) Blamed
(C) Exploited
(D) Prevented
(E) Dodged
Ans : (E)

13. SUFFERING
(A) Hardship
(B) Distressing
(C) Hurting
(D) Experiencing
(E) Trouble
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14-15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. BEST
(A) Damaged
(B) Inferior
(C) Spoiled
(D) Defective
(E) Cheap
Ans : (B)

15. UNUSED
(A) Accustomed
(B) Routine
(C) Often
(D) Normal
(E) Repeated
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Since books are quite expensive that many children do not have access to them.
(A) More expensive than
(B) So expensive that
(C) Very expensive
(D) Too expensive for
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

17. At the meeting they told us what kind of difficulties we may likely to face while establishing a rural branch.
(A) May like to face
(B) Were being faced
(C) Could be likely face
(D) Would be likely to face
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

18. What response you get to the proposal that you circulated among our investors ?
(A) Responses have you
(B) Response did you
(C) Were your responses
(D) Did you respond
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

19. One of our representatives will meet you at the airport and accompanies you to our office.
(A) And accompany you
(B) To accompany
(C) Accompanying you
(D) Will be accompanied by you
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

20. I knew that because I refused to accept the old man’s gift I would hurt his feelings.
(A) Not to refuse
(B) By refusal
(C) If I refused
(D) Should I refused
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. It is better to seek (A) advice (B) from a financial consultant (C) on how to safe (D) your business. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

22. This is the list (A) of people who should be insisted (B) to participate (C) in the conference. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

23. The impact (A) of those schemes (B) was visible (C) after a decade. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. Since this offer is available (A) for a limited (B) period alone (C) you should register (D) immediately. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

25. I patently (A) explained (B) to the customer that it was not possible (C) to fulfil his request. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) Thus they teach us that no matter how insignificant you think you are, you can accomplish extraordinary things.
(2) During the course of its life it was struck by lightning fourteen times.
(3) But one day it was attacked by an army of beetles.
(4) The tree stood at the foot of the Himalayas for over four hundred years.
(5) The tiny insects ate their way through the tree and destroyed it.
(6) It even survived innumerable storms and avalanches.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. My cousin’s wedding provided (A) / me with the chance (B) / to meet which relatives I (C) / had not met for a long time. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

32. There are floods in this (A) / region last year but (B) / many of the victims have (C) / not yet been compensated. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. We must ensure that (A) / all our records (B) / are computerised (C) / for next year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. In order to impart (A) / training to bank employees (B) / we are setting up (C) / centres at various location. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. When Rahul reached (A) / the office there was (B) / nobody there so (C) / he sat down to wait. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

36. I shall have to check (A) / our records to find out (B) / how much cheques (C) / have been collected so far. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

37. Our first task as (A) / board members is (B) / to decide on what we (C) / should spend these funds. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. She was lucky (A) / to find a good paying (B) / job as soon (C) / as she graduated. (D) No error (E)
Ans : E)

39. For the last six months (A) / Seema has been asking them (B) / to refund the money but (C) / there is been no action. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

40. He promised to get (A) / in touch with myself (B) / as soon as he had (C) / the information I needed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A professor was …(41)… the Indian Independence Movement and the idea of non-violence …(42)… by Mahatma Gandhi. “Although others like Nelson Mandela followed this idea and …(43)… the Nobel Prize for Peace Mahatma Gandhi did not,” she said. One student spoke up, “It is good that he didn’t, …(44)… it was an award started by Alfred Nobel who invented dynamite, which causes …(45)… !”

The professor …(46)…. “In fact the world should be …(47)… to Nobel because he invented dynamite. It was very useful to build tunnels …(48)… mountains for trains to pass. If we choose to use it for war it is not his fault. Furthermore he …(49)… all his wealth into instituting prizes for literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, peace, etc. His …(50)… was that anything which would benefit the human race deserved recognition so that the person who had started it would have no financial difficulties in achieving his goal”.

41. (A) lecturing
(B) talking
(C) discussing
(D) speaking
(E) arguing
Ans : (A)

42. (A) originate
(B) specialised
(C) start
(D) conceived
(E) thought
Ans : (D)

43. (A) awarded
(B) given
(C) presented
(D) win
(E) received
Ans : (E)

44. (A) that
(B) get
(C) accept
(D) though
(E) since
Ans : (E)

45. (A) blast
(B) ruins
(C) destruction
(D) bombs
(E) damages
Ans : (C)

46. (A) disagreed
(B) answers
(C) shouted
(D) upset
(E) agreed
Ans : (A)

47. (A) dedicated
(B) grateful
(C) appreciated
(D) thanking
(E) cursing
Ans : (B)

48. (A) from
(B) through
(C) over
(D) under
(E) within
Ans : (D)

49. (A) put
(B) left
(C) gave
(D) donated
(E) contributed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) decision
(B) logic
(C) cause
(D) excuse
(E) discovery
Ans : (B)

Bank Clerical Exams Model Questions

2010-05-20T08:26:00.000-07:00

1. Railway Budget 2010-11 presents overall surplus for 2010-11 at—
(A) Rs. 2642•6 crore
(B) Rs. 3173•09 crore
(C) Rs. 4456•78 crore
(D) Rs. 951•03 crore
Ans : (B)

2. Finance Commission is appointed by the President under Article—
(A) 256 of Constitution
(B) 280 of Constitution
(C) 293 of Constitution
(D) 356 of Constitution
Ans : (B)

3. ‘SAPTA’ is related to—
(A) Education
(B) Trade
(C) Security
(D) Environment
Ans : (B)

4. National Income estimates in India is prepared by—
(A) Planning Commission
(B) RBI
(C) Finance Ministry
(D) C.S.O.
Ans : (D)

5. Maastricht Treaty is related to—
(A) Environment Protection
(B) Europe Unification
(C) Limitation of Atomic Power
(D) Unification of East and West Germany
Ans : (D)

6. In which state Deen Dayal Employment Scheme has been launched ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

7. The Chairman of the newly constituted panel to review domestic saving and investments is—
(A) YK Alagh
(B) Som Parthasarthy
(C) C. Rangarajan
(D) RB Burman
Ans : (C)

8. In Union Budget 2010-11, the current surcharge of 10% on domestic companies has been reduced to—
(A) 9%
(B) 8%
(C) 7•5%
(D) 7%
Ans : (C)

9. As per estimates of NSSO, poverty ratio in India for the year 2004-05 on MRP based statistics and URP based statistics stands at—
(A) 21•8% and 27•5% respectively
(B) 27•5% and 21•8% respectively
(C) 36•0% and 27•5% respectively
(D) 26•1% and 36% respectively
Ans : (A)

10. The value of exports of ornaments and diamonds during 2008-09 is estimated at—
(A) $ 15 billion
(B) $ 17 billion
(C) $ 19 billion
(D) $ 21 billion
Ans : (D)

11. What is the number of companies providing DTH services in India ?
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 4
Ans : (A)

12. World Bank has estimated India’s economic growth for the year 2009 at—
(A) 8•0%
(B) 8•2%
(C) 5•8%
(D) 9•0%
Ans : (C)

13. The latest Reverse Repo Rate (effective from April 21, 2010) is—
(A) 6•0%
(B) 5•0%
(C) 4•75%
(D) 3•75%
Ans : (D)

14. ‘Rozgar Badao’ is the slogan launched by which Prime Minister ?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) V. P. Singh
Ans : (A)

15. What per cent of a rupee has been allocated to interest payment in Union Budget 2010-11 ?
(A) 19%
(B) 20%
(C) 21%
(D) 22%
Ans : (A)

16. Name the village, from where the ‘Food for Work’ programme was started by Dr. Manmohan Singh—
(A) Aloor (Andhra Pradesh)
(B) Champaran (Bihar)
(C) Azamgarh (U.P.)
(D) Silchar (Assam)
Ans : (A)

17. ‘Operation Flood’ is associated with—
(A) Wheat production
(B) Milk production
(C) Flood control
(D) War operation
Ans : (B)

18. India’s National Hydroelectric Power Corporation is establishing ‘Tamarthi Power Project’ in—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
Ans : (B)

19. Amochu Hydro Power Project is being set by NTPC in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Sikkim
(C) Bhutan
(D) Nepal
Ans : (C)

20. Who gave the call for ‘Evergreen Revolution’ ?
(A) M. S. Swaminathan
(B) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(D) M. S. Ahluwaliah
Ans : (A)

Bank Exam Questions

2010-05-20T08:24:00.000-07:00

1. How many countries of Latin America and Africa were notified by the Ministry of Commerce under the ‘Focus Market Scheme’ for export promotion ?
(A) 37
(B) 57
(C) 81
(D) 115
Ans : (B)

2. According to the latest statistics released by International Tea Committee, the largest tea producer country in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Kenya
(C) China
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)

3. Custom duty on 10 gram gold imported in the form of gold coins has been raised from Rs. 200 to—
(A) Rs. 250
(B) Rs. 275
(C) Rs. 300
(D) Rs. 350
Ans : (C)

4. The RBI Governor reviews the Annual Monetary and Credit Policy every time after a gap of—
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) As and when required
Ans : (A)

5. The advertisement of which of the following banks has the punch line ‘Much more to do with you in focus’ ?
(A) Bank of India
(B) Andhra Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) SBI
Ans : (B)

6. Presently the PIN (Postal Index Number) is in six digits. But now, the government has proposed to introduce PIN containing—
(A) 7 digits
(B) 8 digits
(C) 9 digits
(D) 10 digits
Ans : (B)

7. Which neighbour country has objections on Indian Baglihar Hydroelectric Project ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (D)

8. New National Steel Policy 2005 aims to enhance the steel production to more than 100 million tonnes by the year—
(A) 2009-10
(B) 2014-15
(C) 2017-18
(D) 2019-20
Ans : (D)

9. Who has the sole right to issue paper currency in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Govt. of India
Ans : (A)

10. Which Day is celebrated as Computer Literacy Day ?
(A) December 1
(B) December 2
(C) December 10
(D) December 22
Ans : (B)

11. The Repo Rate applicable from 21st April, 2010 is—
(A) 7•5%
(B) 5•0%
(C) 6•5%
(D) 5•25%
Ans : (D)

12. Which state has maximum branches of public sector commercial banks ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (C)

13. Industrial Democracy means—
(A) Labour participation in management
(B) Establishing trade unions for labours
(C) Government of labours
(D) Nationalisation of industries
Ans : (A)

14. In which plan phase of heavy industrialisation was initiated ?
(A) Fourth
(B) Third
(C) Second
(D) First
Ans : (C)

15. ‘Sensitive sector’ as defined by RBI include(s)—
(A) Capital Market
(B) Real Estate
(C) Commodities
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

16. Which is the first Export Processing zone declared as Free Trade Zone in India?
(A) Santacruz
(B) Kandla
(C) Falta
(D) Noida
Ans : (A)

17. As per the statistics of foreign debt at the end of Sept. 2009, the ratio of long-term and short-term debts stands at—
(A) 92 : 8
(B) 93 : 7
(C) 84 : 16
(D) 82•5 : 17•5
Ans : (D)

18. Which institution is known as ‘soft loan window’ of World Bank ?
(A) IFC
(B) IDA
(C) IMF
(D) Indian Development Forum
Ans : (B)

19. ‘Backwash Effect’ was firstly introduced by—
(A) Gunnar Myrdal
(B) Peter Suderland
(C) Arthur Dunkel
(D) Kindelberger
Ans : (A)

20. Meera Seth Committee was related to—
(A) Development of Handlooms
(B) Sex-differentiation in employment
(C) Abolition of Child Labour
(D) Welfare of working women
Ans : (A)

Indian Economy Question Bank

2010-05-20T08:23:00.001-07:00

1. The Chairman of Competition Commission of India (CCI) is—
(A) H. C. Gupta
(B) Dhanendra Kumar
(C) Geeta Gauri
(D) P. N. Parashar
Ans : (B)

2. Which nation has obtained the first rank in HDI ranking in Human Development Report 2007-08 ?
(A) Australia
(B) United States of America
(C) Norway
(D) Iceland
Ans : (D)

3. During 2008-09, the trade deficit in India remains at—
(A) $ 42•32 billion
(B) $ 50•32 billion
(C) $ 88•52 billion
(D) $ 119•05 billion
Ans : (D)

4. Which day is celebrated as ‘National Consumer Right Day’?
(A) 24 September
(B) 24 October
(C) 24 November
(D) 24 December
Ans : (D)

5. CENVAT is associated with—
(A) Rate of Indirect Tax
(B) Rate of Income Tax
(C) Rate of Direct Tax
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

6. The largest importer country of Indian textile is—
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) Singapore
(D) USA
Ans : (D)

7. National Saving Scheme (NSS-92) has been closed by the government since—
(A) November 1, 1999
(B) November 1, 2000
(C) November 1, 2001
(D) November 1, 2002
Ans : (D)

8. Jai Prakash Narain Employment Guarantee Yojana was proposed in the budget—
(A) 2001-02
(B) 2002-03
(C) 2003-04
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Gyandeep Shiksha Yojana was introduced by U.P. Government on September 25, 2002. This scheme is associated with—
(A) Primary Education
(B) Secondary Education
(C) Higher Education
(D) All the above
Ans : (C)

10. Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan Yojana has been announced by the Prime Minister on August 15, 2002 which is associated with—
(A) Drinking water
(B) Extension of Irrigation
(C) Making community latrines in slums
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

11. What is true for Commodity Transaction Tax (CTT) as per the declaration of Union Budget 2009-10 ?
(A) It is abolished
(B) It is raised
(C) It is reduced
(D) It remains unchanged
Ans : (A)

12. The ‘Year of India in Russia’ is associated with the year—
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2011
Ans : (B)

13. National Seed Policy 2002 was based on the recommendation of—
(A) Kelkar Committee
(B) M. V. Rao Committee
(C) Y. B. Reddy Committee
(D) Prof. Abhijit Sen Committee
Ans : (B)

14. Indian Government has provided the facility of ‘Visa on Arrival’ to tourists belonging to five nations. Which one of the following nations is not included in it ?
(A) Japan
(B) England
(C) Singapore
(D) New Zealand
Ans : (B)

15. At the end of September 2009 India’s total external debt stands at—
(A) 185•85 billion US $
(B) 200•92 billion US $
(C) 221•20 billion US $
(D) 242•82 billion US $
Ans : (D)

16. ‘Reshaping Economic Geography’ was the theme of—
(A) World Development Report, 2007
(B) World Development Report, 2008
(C) Human Development Report, 2009
(D) World Development Report, 2009
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following sector gets 100% maximum limit of FDI ?
(A) Public Sector Banking
(B) Tea Industry
(C) Communication
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. How much per cent of the collected tariff is given to postman (known as Gramin Dak Sewak) as commission in Gramin Sanchar Sewak Yojana ?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
Ans : (C)

19. The top debtor country in the world is—
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) Mexico
(D) China
Ans : (B)

20. Oil pool account was closed on—
(A) January 1, 2002
(B) April 1, 2002
(C) January 1, 2003
(D) April 1, 2003
Ans : (B)

Bank Exams Questions

2010-05-20T08:21:00.000-07:00

1. Which of the following is, at present, the biggest mobile operator in the market ?
(A) Bharti Airtel
(B) BSNL
(C) Reliance Communication
(D) Hutch-Essar
Ans : (A)

2. National Rural Health Mission has been launched in the country since—
(A) April 1, 2005
(B) April 12, 2005
(C) April 1, 2006
(D) April 12, 2006
Ans : (B)

3. In the first phase, the import of modern coaches of Delhi Metro Rail was made from—
(A) Japan
(B) Britain
(C) Philippines
(D) South Korea
Ans : (D)

4. UTI has been divided into two parts UTI-I and UTI-II. Which part has been kept under the control of the government ?
(A) UTI-I
(B) UTI-II
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. The planning commission has released a document presenting pre-estimated progress of the economy. It is named as—
(A) India Vision 2015
(B) India Vision 2020
(C) India Vision 2022
(D) India Vision 2025
Ans : (B)

6. Index ‘Residex’ is associated with—
(A) Share Prices
(B) Mutual Fund Prices
(C) Price Inflation Index
(D) Land Prices
Ans : (D)

7. The Primary capital of ‘National Population Fund’ is—
(A) Rs. 100 crore
(B) Rs. 125 crore
(C) Rs. 150 crore
(D) Rs. 200 crore
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is not sponsorer of newly established UTI-II ?
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) General Insurance Corporation
(C) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (B)

9. Price Stabilisation Fund-PSF has been established for four products. Which of the following is not in these four ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Tea
(C) Rubber
(D) Tobacco
Ans : (A)

10. Recently CSO has changed the base year for National Accounting from 1993-1994 to 1999-2000. How many times the base year has been changed so far since independence ?
(A) Four times
(B) Five times
(C) Six times
(D) Seven times
Ans : (B)

11. In which bank of the following Indian Government still has cent per cent share in bank’s equity?
(A) Allahabad Bank
(B) Bank of Maharashtra
(C) Central Bank of India
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

12. What is the sex-ratio in newly created state ‘Uttarakhand’ on the basis of 2001 census ?
(A) 933
(B) 940
(C) 956
(D) 964
Ans : (D)

13. The minimum statutory price (MSP) fixed by the Central Government for sugarcane for the sugar year 2009-10 (Oct.–Sept.) is—
(A) Rs. 81•18
(B) Rs. 101•76
(C) Rs. 107•76
(D) Rs. 126•58
Ans : (C)

14. To which organisation, this new logo belongs ?
(A) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(B) Canara Bank
(C) Axis Bank
(D) EXIM Bank
Ans : (B)

15. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has finally become operational w.e.f.—
(A) May 20, 2008
(B) May 20, 2009
(C) April 1, 2009
(D) September 1, 2009
Ans : (B)

16. Government has constituted a special group to assess the financial status of public sector oil companies under the chairmanship of—
(A) Anand Virmani
(B) K.C. Jain
(C) B. K. Chaturvedi
(D) Indira Bhargava
Ans : (C)

17. In Union Budget 2010-11, Export Credit Guarantee Scheme has been extended till—
(A) March 2010
(B) March 2011
(C) March 2012
(D) Dec. 2012
Ans : (A)

18. According to the Human Development Report 2007-08, India has acquired 128th place in HDI ranking which is……than that of last year.
(A) Two ranks up
(B) One rank up
(C) Two ranks down
(D) One rank down
Ans : (C)

19. Govt. has launched E-passport scheme. The first E-passport was issued to—
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Mr. Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
(D) Mr. Somnath Chatterjee
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following company alone finds a place in the list of elite companies in ‘Fortune’ magazine ?
(A) ONGC
(B) Reliance Industries Ltd.
(C) TISCO
(D) BSNL
Ans : (A)

General Awareness (Business & Economy)

2010-05-20T08:18:00.000-07:00

1. The target share of Indian Trade in World Trade by the end of 2009 is—
(A) 1.0%
(B) 1.5%
(C) 2.0%
(D) 2.5%
Ans : (B)

2. ‘Rajdhani Channel’ is a name given to—
(A) Quick Mail Service
(B) Quick Rail Service
(C) Doordarshan Channel
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Patnayak Economy Committee constituted by NDC gave the main recommendation—
(A) To reduce the ratio of non-plan revenue expenditure in total revenue expenditure of states
(B) To deprive upper income group from benefits of P.D.S.
(C) To simplify sales tax and to encourage those states which show better financial management
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

4. 9th Auto Expo 2008 was organised in—
(A) Bangalore
(B) New Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Gurgaon
Ans : (B)

5. R. N. Malhotra Committee gave recommendations on the field of—
(A) Sick industries
(B) Tax reforms
(C) Insurance Sector
(D) Banking Sector
Ans : (C)

6. The minimum number of women needed for making a ‘Working Group’ under DWCRA programme is—
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) No minimum limit
Ans : (C)

7. Exemption limit of income-tax for women below the age of 65 years in the Union Budget 2009-10 was raised to—
(A) Rs. 1,85,000
(B) Rs. 1,90,000
(C) Rs. 2,00,000
(D) Rs. 2,40,000
Ans : (B)

8. ‘Mahila Samridhi Yojana’ was introduced on—
(A) October 2, 1992
(B) October 2, 1993
(C) October 2, 1995
(D) January 1, 1996
Ans : (B)

9. Who recommended the merger of RRBs in their respective Sponsor Banks ?
(A) Narsimham Committee
(B) C. Rangrajan Ex-Governor of RBI
(C) Agriculture Credit Appraisal Committee in 1989 headed by Prof. A.M. Khusro
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

10. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Commerce Minister
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. In Union Budget 2010-11, 30% tax slab for Senior Citizen now starts with the income above—
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 4,50,000
(C) Rs. 8,00,000
(D) Rs. 8,50,000
Ans : (C)

12. Who is the President of Investment Commission appointed by the Central Government ?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(C) Amar Singh
(D) N. R. Narayan Murti
Ans : (A)

13. Rural Electrification Corporation was established in—
(A) 1979
(B) 1969
(C) 1989
(D) 1959
Ans : (B)

14. Who suggested to establish an ‘Insurance Regulation Authority’ ?
(A) Dandekar Committee
(B) Malhotra Committee
(C) Khusro Committee
(D) Rangrajan Committee
Ans : (B)

15. What is ‘Dow Jones’ ?
(A) Share market index of New York Exchange Market
(B) Gold price Index of World Gold Council
(C) Share market index of Mumbai Stock Exchange
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. As per RBI directions, inter-bank cash withdrawals will be free of charge w.e.f.—
(A) 26th January, 2010
(B) October 1, 2009
(C) April 1, 2009
(D) April 1, 2010
Ans : (C)

17. Ethanol mixed petrol is being sold in various states w.e.f. January1, 2003. The percentage of ethanol in petrol is—
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
(C) 2%
(D) 1%
Ans : (B)

18. When was the quota system in textile’s foreign trade was abolished ?
(A) January 1, 2003
(B) January 1, 2004
(C) January 1, 2005
(D) January 1, 2006
Ans : (C)

19. Which Indian city has the highest population ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) New Delhi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

20. In which state, Punjab National Bank has installed the first Biometric ATM ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Delhi
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 14-3-2010 (Second Shift) Solved Paper

2010-05-02T19:46:00.000-07:00

Allahabad Bank Clerk Exam., 2010 [Held on 14-3-2010 (Second Shift)]
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshav and Yash lived in neighbouring villages. Once, a fair was held nearby and they set off from their homes hoping to do some business there. Keshav filled his sack with cheap cotton, overlaid it with a layer of fine wool, and set off for the fair. Meanwhile Yash, collected some old clothes, put a layer of sheer cotton on top and made his way to the fair. Each stopped to rest under a tree and got to talking. “I have the finest wool in my sack,” boasted Keshav Not to be outdone, Yash said, “I have cotton of the most superior quality.”

The two struck a deal. They would exchange their goods and since wool was more expensive, Yash would pay Keshav an extra rupee. But Yash had no money on him. So after agreeing to pay Keshav later, they went home, laughing at each other’s folly. It did not take them long to discover that they had been duped. The next day, Keshav landed at Yash’s house. “You cheat! Give me my rupee at least.” Yash was untroubled by Keshav’s words, “Of course. But first help me find the treasure at the bottom of this well. We can divide it.” So Keshav went into the well. But each time Yash, hauled up the bucket Keshav had filled, he said, “Oh ! No treasure here. Try again.” Keshav soon realized he was being used as free labour to clean the well. So he gave a loud shout, “Here is the treasure! Watch out it’s heavy !” Yash was amazed that there actually was treasure in the well. As soon as he pulled up the bucket he threw away the rope so that Keshav could not come up. But, what did he find in the bucket ? Keshav covered in mud ! They began fighting again. Soon it got too dark to continue and they left for their homes.

But Keshav did not give up easily. He arrived at Yash’s house a few days later. Yash spotted him and told his wife, “I will pretend to be dead. Keshav will have to give up.” But when Keshav heard Yash’s wife wailing, he rushed out to gather the villagers. “My friend has died. Let’s take his body for cremation.” Yash’s wife got scared, “Go away. I shall arrange for cremation myself !” But the villagers thought she was too grief stricken. Once they reached the cremation ground, Keshav told the villagers, “It is getting dark. I shall watch over him during the night.” When the villagers had left, Keshav said to Yash, “Stop pretending. Give me my money !” Now, a gang of thieves came upon them and seeing one figure seated on the funeral pyre and another standing next to him talking, they assumed them to be ghosts and dropped their bag of stolen goods and left at top speed. The two, saw the bag full of gold and silver ornaments and divided it between themselves. Keshav made sure he got an extra gold coin and the account was settled at last!

1. What made the two young men decide to visit the fair ?
(A) They thought they could get jobs and support themselves
(B) They wanted to trade their goods at the fair and earn some money
(C) To sell the produce they had grown for a handsome profit
(D) Being unemployed they thought they could entertain people at the fair
(E) Not clearly mentioned in the passage
Ans : (B)

2. What were Keshav and Yash quarrelling about ?
(A) The cost of wool
(B) The interest on the loan Yash had taken
(C) Dividing the thieves’ treasure equally
(D) The money Yash owed Keshav
(E) The wages for digging the well
Ans : (D)

3. Why were the two men happy despite not going to the fair ?
(A) They had managed to buy whatever they needed on the way
(B) They had got a good deal in exchange for a rupee
(C) They had become fast friends and had made a lot of money in the bargain
(D) Each thought he had got the better deal and had swindled the other
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)

4. Why did the villagers gather at Yash’s house ?
(A) Yash’s wife was very upset seeing Keshav and her husband arguing
(B) To help Yash’s wife carry Yash’s body home as night had fallen
(C) To give Yash’s wife the news of her husband’s death
(D) They wanted to keep watch over Yash’s wife during the night
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)

5. Why did Yash request Keshav to go down into the well ?
(A) He knew Keshav was smart and would clean it thoroughly
(B) He was in search of treasure that he had buried
(C) To trick Keshav into cleaning it
(D) His wife had refused to help him
(E) To make Keshav earn the extra gold coin
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following cannot be said about the two young men ?
(a) They were lazy and made their wives work.
(b) They were a match for each other in shrewdness.
(c) They were dishonest and tried to swindle each other.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (a) and (c)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) All (a), (b) and (c)
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

7. Why did Keshav get an extra gold coin from the thieves’ treasure ?
(A) As payment for digging the well
(B) It was the amount Yash owed Keshav for protecting him from the thieves
(C) As repayment of the rupee that Yash owed him
(D) It was his idea to spend the night at the cremation ground
(E) He had proved to be cleverer than Yash
Ans : (C)

8. What was Keshav’s reaction to Yash’s presumed ‘death’ ?
(A) He immediately sent for the villagers to comfort Yash’s wife
(B) He was very upset because he realized that he would never recover his money
(C) He paid for all Yash’s funeral arrangements
(D) He could not be consoled and kept a watch over Yash’s body all night
(E) He knew Yash was pretending and decided to trick him too
Ans : (E)

9. What frightened the thieves ?
(A) The sight of what they thought were the spirits of the dead
(B) The realization that the villagers would soon return
(C) Someone had discovered their hiding place
(D) Their loot had been stolen by other thieves
(E) The villagers had lit a funeral pyre for them
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(A) Keshav was persevering by nature
(B) There was no treasure buried in Yash’s well
(C) Keshav guarded Yash’s body because he knew thieves lived there
(D) Yash’s wife supported her husband in his crooked dealings
(E) Neither Keshav nor Yash could be trusted to keep his word
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

11. Discover
(A) Invent
(B) Explore
(C) Locate
(D) Realize
(E) Research
Ans : (D)

12. Struck
(A) Reached
(B) Impacted
(C) Slapped
(D) Attacked
(E) Occurred
Ans : (A)

13. Top
(A) Height
(B) Lid
(C) Finest
(D) Upper
(E) Maximum
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage ?

14. Dark
(A) Bright
(B) Cheerful
(C) Shadow
(D) Fair
(E) Shining
Ans : (A)

15. Free
(A) Occupied
(B) Paid
(C) Captured
(D) Busy
(E) Dependent
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (E).

16. In order to (A) / attract tourists many (B) / hotels have been offered (C) / attractive deals and discounts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. The Board is likely (A) / to take its time (B) / to examine the facts (C) / before giving their decision. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. How can we open (A) / these branches on time (B) / if we have not (C) / yet obtained the licences ? (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

19. One of the disadvantage (A) / of fixed deposit schemes (B) / is that banks offer (C) / low rates of interest. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. According to experts, it is (A) / necessarily for you to save (B) / and invest at least twenty-five (C) / percent of your monthly income. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

21. The manager has not (A) / yet replied to the (B) / customer letter asking (C) / about her loan application. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. While the formation of RBI (A) / was approved in March, 1934 (B) / it was inaugurated (C) / only in April 1, 1935. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

23. The Insurance Regulatory Development Authority has (A) / asked all insurance (B) / companies submitting their (C) / balance sheets by June. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

24. Arun’s father has been ill (A) / since last year and Arun (B) / has spend his entire (C) / savings on his treatment. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. There are a large number (A) / of Chinese workers which (B) / are employed by (C) / software companies in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

26. There are few (A) differents (B) between (C) these two marketing proposals. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

27. Most (A) banks have been hiring (B) staff for their corporate (C) banking divisions. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

28. The interest rate for postal deposits is fixed (A) by the government and usually (B) remains (C) stable. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

29. Companies (A) will benefit (B) if the Finance Ministry decides to lesser (C) taxes in this budget. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

30. Compare (A) to private (B) banks, we have a larger (C) network (D) of branches in North India. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A poor man was once travelling through the desert. Feeling thirsty and tired, he began to …(31)… for water. At last finding a stream, he …(32)… to his knees and drank the water which …(33)… very sweet. He filled up his bottle …(34)… continued on. After several days journey, he …(35)… the palace and got an opportunity to …(36)… the King. As a mark of …(37)… he presented the King with the bottle …(38)… water. The King tasted the water, and …(39)… rewarded the man. All the courtiers …(40)… to taste the water but the King refused. When the man had left overjoyed, the king explained why he had acted so strangely. “After such a long journey, the water was foul tasting. I could not risk anyone showing, his disgust for a gift which was so sincerely given! For this reason alone I reserved the tasting of the water for myself.”

31. (A) desire
(B) pursue
(C) need
(D) obtain
(E) search
Ans : (E)

32. (A) fell
(B) drop
(C) jumped
(D) leaped
(E) sat
Ans : (D)

33. (A) looked
(B) tasted
(C) flavour
(D) became
(E) sample
Ans : (B)

34. (A) before
(B) soon
(C) and
(D) that
(E) however
Ans : (C)

35. (A) came
(B) reached
(C) built
(D) seen
(E) arrived
Ans : (B)

36. (A) meet
(B) receive
(C) homage
(D) acquaint
(E) welcome
Ans : (A)

37. (A) rebuke
(B) regards
(C) regret
(D) respect
(E) reverend
Ans : (D)

38. (A) had
(B) of
(C) filled
(D) contained
(E) full
Ans : (B)

39. (A) foolishly
(B) hasty
(C) similarly
(D) selfishly
(E) generously
Ans : (E)

40. (A) began
(B) hoping
(C) begged
(D) anxious
(E) wish
Ans : (C)

Indian Bank Rural Marketing Officers Exam., 2010 : English Language Fully Solved

2010-04-22T10:11:00.000-07:00

MARGIN: 0px auto 10px; WIDTH: 275px; CURSOR: hand; HEIGHT: 71px; TEXT-ALIGN: center" alt=""

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style="font-size:180%;color:#000099;">Indian Bank Rural Marketing Officers Exam., 2010

(Held on 3-1-2010)
English Language : Solved

Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help

you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“We have always known that heedless self-interest was bad morals. We now

know that it is bad economics,” said American President Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1937 in

the midst of the Great Depression. And the world has learnt that

enlightened self-interest is good economics all over again after the Great

Recession of 2009. Americans are entering a period of social change as they are

recalibrating their sense of what it means to be a citizen, not just through voting or

volunteering but also through commerce. There is a new dimension to civic duty that is

growing among Americans – the idea that they can serve not only by spending time in

communities and classrooms but by spending more responsibily. In short, Americans are

beginning to put their money where their ideals are.

In a recent poll most said they had consciously supported local or small neighbourhood

businesses and 40 per cent said that they had purchased a product because they liked the

social or political values of the company that produced it. People were alarmed about

‘blood diamonds’ mined in war zones and used to finance conflict in Africa. They were also

willing to pay $2000 more for a car that gets 35 miles per gallon than for one that gives

less, though the former is more expensive but environment friendly. Of course consumers

have done their own doing-well by doing-good calculation – a more expensive car that gives

better mileage will save them money in the long run and makes them feel good about

protecting the environment. Moreover since 1995, the number of Socially Responsible

Investment (SRI) mutual funds, which generally avoid buying shares of companies that profit

from tobacco, oil or child labour has grown from 55 to 260. SRI funds now manage approxi

mately 11 percent of all the money invested in the US financial markets–an estimated $ 2.7

trillion. This is evidence of a changing mindset in a nation whose most iconic economist

Milton Friedman wrote in 1970 that a corporation’s only moral responsib ility was to

increase shareholder profits.

At first the corporate stance was defensive : companies were punished by consumers for

unethical behaviour such as discriminatory labour practices. The nexus of activist groups,

consumers and government regulation could not merely tarnish a company but put it out of

business. But corporate America quickly discerned that social responsibility

attracts investment capital as well as customer loyalty, creating a

virtuous circle. Some companies quickly embraced the new ethos that con

sumers boycotted products they con sidered unethical and others purchase products in part

because their manufacturers were responsibile. With global warming on the minds of many

consumers lots of companies are racing to ‘outgreen’ each other. The most

progressive companies are talking about a triple bottom line-profit, planet and people–that

focuses on how to run a business while trying to improve environmental and worker

conditions.

This is a time when the only thing that has sunk lower than the American public’s opinion

of Congress is its opinion of business. One burning question is how many of these Corporate

Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives are just shrewd marketing to give companies a halo

effect ? After all only 8 per cent of the large American corporations go through the

trouble of verifying their CSR reports, which many consumers don’t bother to read. And

while social responsibility is one way for companies to get back their reputations,

Consumers too need to make ethical choices.

1. Which of the following represent/s the change/s that has/have occurred in the American

outlook ?
(1) The perception that the government needs to invest resources in business rather than in

education.
(2) Loss of faith in American corporations as they do not disburse their profits equitably

among shareholders.
(3) Americans have cut down on their expenditure drastically to invest only in socially

responsible mutual funds.
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) & (2)
(D) Only (1) & (3)
(E) All (1), (2) & (3)
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(1) The voter turnout during the 2009 American elections was high.
(2) African diamonds are highly valued by the American public.
(3) American firms have to spend vast amounts on advertising because activists cast

aspersions on their images.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) Only (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (B)

3. To what does the author attribute the consumers’ willingness to purchase environment

friendly vehicles ?
(A) Auto companies sell these types of vehicles at lower rates in order to boost sales in

times of recession.
(B) The realisation that consumers’ greed caused the economic recession of 2009.
(C) To show their support for small entrepreneurs who are the manufacturers of such

vehicles.
(D) They have to comply with government guidelines regarding reduction of carbon emissions.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage ?
(A) It is beneficial to invest in American companies as they are socially responsible and

profitable.
(B) Large corporations should be penalised by the American government for their greed.
(C) Ethical consumerism is profitable for organisations as well as society as a whole.
(D) Companies should be required by law to account for their impact on the environment in

their balance-sheet.
(E) Developing countries should learn how to combat child labour from America.
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following best describes the widespread view among Americans about big

corporations ?
(A) They have been lax in fulfilling their moral responsibility of increasing profits and

benefit ting shareholders.
(B) They are being too severely penalised by activities and the government for their role

in the economic crisis.
(C) Their innovations have brought commercial success and benefited America tremendously.
(D) They need to be held accountable for their ruthless business practices.
(E) Their balance-sheets are often fraudulent and deceive shareholders.
Ans : (C)

6. What is the author trying to convey through the phrase ‘companies are racing to

outgreen each other’ ?
(A) The competition among companies to boost their bottom line is very stiff.
(B) The conflict facing businesses of whether to benefit their shareholders or the

environment.
(C) Corporations are vying with each other to solicit investment.
(D) Companies are striving to find the necessary funds to finance their environment

friendly initiatives.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following factors has led to corporations adopting more socially

responsible practices ?
(A) The desire to be labelled as progressive by the government.
(B) Guilt over causing the economic downturn.
(C) High attrition rates as employees do not support the companies’ practices.
(D) Recognition of the changing demands of customers.
(E) Strict penalties imposed by governments against companies with unfair practices.
Ans : (D)

8. What can be inferred from the statistics mentioned about SRI mutual funds in the passage

?
(1) The percentage of child labourers has fallen since 1995.
(2) At present tobacco companies are making huge losses.
(3) The government needs to regulate SRI mutual funds as they handle vast amounts of funds.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

9. What is the author’s view about companies’ documentation of CSR initiatives ?
(A) Since it is not certified by the government it cannot be considered authentic.
(B) It is the ideal way to earn customer loyalty and set a good example for small

businesses
(C) It is a waste of time as neither consumers nor companies bother to determine their

validity
(D) It should be mandatorily incorporated in the satement of accounts of any firm.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. Which of the following cannot be said about small business ?
(1) During the recession their profits have been higher than those made by big corporates.
(2) They adopt fair labour practices and environment friendly methods of production.
(3) They have managed to acquire an investment of over 11 per cent of American capital.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (3)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST

SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold

as used in the passage.
11. Ideals
(A) Models
(B) Visions
(C) Perfection
(D) Paradigms
(E) Values
Ans : (D)

12. Embraced
(A) Clinched
(B) Adopted
(C) Seized
(D) Hugged
(E) Encompassed
Ans : (B)

13. Attracts
(A) Appeals
(B) Encourages
(C) Captives
(D) Fascinates
(E) Pleases
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 14-15) Choose the word which is MOST

OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold

as used in the passage.

14. Enlightened
(A) Illiterate
(B) Inept
(C) Ignorant
(D) Illogical
(E) Immature
Ans : (C)

15. Heedless
(A) Prudent
(B) Obedient
(C) Observable
(D) Noticeable
(E) Wary
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given

below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to

make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is

and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. This decision by the government making it easier for companies to

attract talent from abroad.
(A) make easier
(B) has made easy
(C) will make it easy
(D) make it easier
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

17. We are currently facing an economic downturn and even a slight increase in demand

will benefit to ourselves.
(A) has benefited ourselves
(B) will benefit from us
(C) we will benefit
(D) will be beneficial to us
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

18. Not like that the matter is going to be resolved in one meeting as the

issue is quite complicated.
(A) mostly unlikely
(B) very unlike that
(C) unlikely how
(D) it is unlikely that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

19. The next two months are going to be very hectic as there is more six

projects have been scheduled.
(A) with six more
(B) as more than six
(C) still there are six other
(D) because there are still six
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

20. The workshop was jointly held by the two colleges to create awareness

about various careers—
(A) has jointly held in
(B) will be joint holding
(C) was a joint holding for
(D) is been jointly held with
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions

given below them—
1. With all the bid information being available and tracked online, corruption has been

consid erably reduced.
2. Today, most i.e., over ninety-five percent households in the city enjoy a broadband

connection.
3. All city contracts are now bid for online.
4. Over twenty years ago the city government, central government and the private sector

made a concerted effort to shift the economy to include IT.
5. As our cities continue to expand and become more complex, such a system will make

governance more manageable.
6. This level of connectedness has changed not only the city’s economy but also how it is

governed and how business is conducted.

21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after

rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any

grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the

sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).

(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. Some genuine issues exist (A) / with the newly adopted (B) / system and needs to (C) /

be examined seriously. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

27. Whether or not to confront (A) / them about their role (B) / in the matter is a

decision (C) / which is yet to take. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)

28. The government is still in the (A) / process of finalised new policy (B) / guidelines

for the allocation of land (C) / to private sector organisations. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

29. According to government estimates (A) / at least four million tonnes of sugar (B) /

will have to be imported (C) / this year because of a poor monsoon. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)

30. In our experience people usually (A) / value things that they have to (B) / pay off

more than those that (C) / they receive free of cost. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

31. At present China is the (A) / world’s leader manufacturer (B) / of environment friendly

products (C) / such as electric cars and bicycles. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. Over eighty per cent from us (A) / feel that if we had taken (B) / some corrective

measures earlier (C) / the crisis could have been averted. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. The manager of that city branch (A) / cannot handle it with the help of (B) / only two

personnel as (C) /business has increased substantially. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. With the literacy rates in this (A) / region as low as ten per cent (B) / we need to

encourage the (C) / local people to build schools. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. While providing such facilities (A) / online makes it convenient (B) / and easily

accessible for customers, (C) / we face several challenges. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words

printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A),

(B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either

wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out

the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of

that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly

spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as

your answer.

36. The bank’s fluctuating (A) performance over the prior

(B) year has been a major (C) cause (D) for concern. All

correct (E)
Ans : (B)

37. An economy relies (A) on its access (B) to

dependable (C) and affordable (D) sources of energy. All

correct (E)
Ans : (E)

38. Researchers have used data prevalent (A) to manufacturing companies

to illustrate (B) the harmful (C)

impacts (D) of techonology on the environement. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

39. Such a situation (A) is neither feasable (B) nor

desirable (C) in a democratic country like ours. (D) All

correct (E)
Ans : (B)

40. The gradual (A) withdrawal (B) of such

safety (C) mechanisims (D) will affect small and medium

industries the most. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of

which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below

the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank

appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The world’s climate has always changed and species have evolved accordingly to survive it.

The surprising fact about the …(41)… between evolution and global warming

…(42)… that it is not linear. …(43)… temperatures alone

are not …(44)… of evolution. Evolution is also the …(45)…

of seasonal changes. As the
environment …(46)… those species which don’t adapt …(47)…

to exist. But the sheer …(48)… of manmade
climate change today is …(49)…. ‘Bad things are happening’ and by one

…(50)… global warming could threaten upto one-third of the world’s

species, if left unchecked. In fact a lot of the species which will be able to survive are

the ones we con sider pests like insects and weeds.

41. (A) difference
(B) similarity
(C) argument
(D) relationship
(E) alliance
Ans : (D)

42. (A) being
(B) seems
(C) mainly
(D) besides
(E) is
Ans : (E)

43. (A) however
(B) mounted
(C) rising
(D) elevating
(E) inclining
Ans : (A)

44. (A) means
(B) triggers
(C) responses
(D) threats
(E) stimulus
Ans : (A)

45. (A) result
(B) precursor
(C) resistance
(D) cause
(E) provocation
Ans : (A)

46. (A) conserves
(B) stifles
(C) predicts
(D) changes
(E) emerges
Ans : (B)

47. (A) continue
(B) halt
(C) cease
(D) terminate
(E) discontinue
Ans : (C)

48. (A) luck
(B) value
(C) collapse
(D) pace
(E) attention
Ans : (D)

49. (A) threatened
(B) pursued
(C) unprecedented
(D) record
(E) debated
Ans : (C)

50. (A) forecast
(B) chance
(C) pattern
(D) occasion
(E) imagination
Ans : (A)

Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam, 2010 : General Awareness on Current Developments

2010-04-11T18:38:00.000-07:00

Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
(Held on 24-1-2010)
General Awareness on Current Developments : Solved Paper

1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)

2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)

5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)

8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)

10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed—
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)

12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)

42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)

46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)

49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Union Bank of India Clerk Exam, 2010 : General English (Solved)

2010-03-18T08:38:00.000-07:00

Union Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2010
(Held on 10-1-2010)
General English : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–5) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the boldly printed words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

1. RBI is unwilling (A) to enforce (B) these reuglations as these will discourage (C) investment. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

2. Many Indian firms have entry (A) into partnership (B) with foreign (C) ones of late. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

3. This is a prime (A) example (B) of what the government can achieve (C) if it is determine. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

4. They managed (A) to accomplice (B) this by coming (C) up with unique (D) schemes. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

5. In such circumstanses (A) do not take unnecessary (B) risks (C) with your savings. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–20) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rajendra was a landlord. He had made a lot of money by cheating and ill-treating his laboures who worked in the fields. One day, a young man named Mani came to Rajendra, asking for work. Rajendra was pleasantly surprised. No one had ever wanted to work for him because of his reputation, and here was someone walking right into his house ! Mani’s next few words surprised him even more. Mani said, “I will work for you for free. Only give me a place to sleep, two sets of clothes and two square meals a day.” Rajendra was beside himself with joy when he heard this and was about to agree, when Mani added, “I have only one condition : I will tell you the truth always, but one day in the year, I will lie.”

Rajendra, who lied happily everyday of the year, agreed to this odd condition. So Mani began working for him. He was a wonderful worker–hard-working and trustworthy. He was very honest and soon became Rajendra’s right-hand man. Because of Mani’s hard work, Rajendra had an excellent harvest. He and his wife, Manda, decided to have a big feast to celebrate. They invited all their relatives and friends, from the village and outside as well. Everyone was looking forward to the delicious feast being planned. On the morning of the feast, Rajendra decided he would also give away some gifts to his relatives, just to show off. So he set off for the market in his cart.

As soon as he was out of sight, Mani went running to Manda. He wept loudly and beat his chest. Then he fell on the floor, sobbing and announced, “The master is dead ! The cart overturned on the road. Our master has been flattened like a chapatti !” As soon as Rajendra’s wife and relatives heard this, they started wailing. Mani rushed out, saying he would bring back the body, while everyone started preparing for the last rites. Mani now went running to his master and said, “Master ! Your wife is dead. A cobra bit her and she fell to the ground, as blue as the spring sky.” Rajendra was stunned. What ! His beloved Manda, his partner in all his schemes, was dead ! He hurried home shouting her name.

Manda too was weeping loudly, sitting in the courtyard. When she saw her husband run in, she stopped mid-wail, and Rajendra too stoodopen mouthed. Then they fell into each other’s arms, unable to believe their eyes.

As one, they turned to Mani. “What is the meaning of this, Mani ?” His master angrily demanded. Mani smiled. “Remember my condition, that I would lie once in the year ? Well, I chose today. You see what lies can do ? Now think what happens to the people whom you lie to everyday of the year !” Saying this, he walked out, leaving behind a stunned and ashamed landlord.

6. Why did Mani want to work for Rajendra ?
(A) Rajendra offered him food, clothing and shelter.
(B) To learn from Rajendra who was a successful businessman.
(C) To earn his trust so he could take over the business one day.
(D) He wanted to show Rajendra the error of his ways.
(E) Rajendra did not mind bad habit of telling lies.
Ans : (D)

7. Why did Rajendra shout at Mani one day ?
(1) Mani had lied to Rajendra and his wife causing them to fight.
(2) The feast had to be cancelled because of Mani and Rajendra suffered huge losses.
(3) He had embarrassed his wife and him in front of their friends and relatives.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

8. What was Rajendra’s immediate reaction on hearing the news of his wife’s ‘death’ ?
(A) He panicked because his wife was responsible for them being rich.
(B) He ran home at once because he doubted Mani’s honesty.
(C) He was very upset and rushed home at once.
(D) He wanted to make funeral arrangements.
(E) He went home to inform everyone that the feast was cancelled.
Ans : (C)

9. Why did Rajendra go out on the day of the feast ?
(A) He wanted to share his good fortune with his relatives.
(B) He took gifts for his relatives who were not as well off as he was.
(C) He wanted to boast about his prosperity to his relatives.
(D) To purchase groceries required for the feast from the market.
(E) He wanted to personally invite his relatives who lived outside the village.
Ans : (C)

10. Why did Mani work very hard for Rajendra ?
(A) He took pride in his work and wanted to ensure a good harvest.
(B) He was grateful to Rajendra for giving him a job.
(C) He knew Rajendra would share the profit with his right hand man.
(D) He considered himself as part to Rejendra’s family.
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. Why did Rajendra accept Mani’s condition ?
(A) He did not value honesty.
(B) He had no intention of letting Mani fulfill it.
(C) He was an expert at detecting when people lied.
(D) He knew how difficult it was to stop lying.
(E) He predicted that Mani would be an excellent worker.
Ans : (D)

12. Why did Mani lie to Manda ?
(A) Out of revenge for not being invited to the feast.
(B) To find out whether Rajendra’s relatives cared about him or his wealth.
(C) To help her realise how much Rajendra meant to her.
(D) To delay the start of the feast as his master had not yet arrived.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) Rajendra was ashamed only because Mani had managed to trick him.
(B) Mani had many friends who were cheated by Rajendra.
(C) Rajendra was a miser because despite being wealthy he travelled by cart.
(D) Mani was clever and a good actor.
(E) Manda was an excellent cook and had prepared a delicious feast.
Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following can be said about Manda ?
(1) She trusted Mani more than Rajendra.
(2) She had a good relationship with her husband’s relatives.
(3) She was dishonest.
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (A)

15. What opinion did Rajendra’s workers have of him ?
(A) He was generous for paying them and providing for their basic needs.
(B) He was a cheat and he exploited them.
(C) He was a weak man who listened only to his wife.
(D) He was unfair to his workers and paid each a different salary.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–18) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

16. Pleasantly
(A) Extremely
(B) Delightfully
(C) Charming
(D) Friendly
(E) Coolly
Ans : (A)

17. Right
(A) Suitable
(B) Legally
(C) Accurately
(D) Straight
(E) Immediately
Ans : (D)

18. Wailing
(A) Crying
(B) Complaining
(C) Shouting
(D) Tears
(E) Grumbling
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 19–20) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Celebrate
(A) Insult
(B) Reject
(C) Dishonour
(D) Mourn
(E) Infamous
Ans : (C)

20. Planned
(A) Organised
(B) Deliberate
(C) Cancelled
(D) Informal
(E) Automatic
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. Being generous by nature, the king offered them a meal and treated them kindly.
2. In appreciation the king ordered a stew to be prepared for the feast in honour of the farmer.
3. The king welcomed them too and placed before each a bowl of water saying. “This is the stew of the stew of the hare !”
4. A few days later, a few people came to the court claiming to be neighbours of the farmer.
5. A poor farmer presented a fine hare to the king.
6. Not long afterwards a large number of people appeared at the palace and introduced themselves as neighbours of the neighbours of the farmer.

21. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

22. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

26. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on investors.
(A) what impact
(B) that the impact
(C) how much impacts
(D) what are the impacts of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. Unfortunately many of our towns and cities do have more good transportation systems.
(A) have a good
(B) not have good
(C) not have much good
(D) not having better
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

28. Banks charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the loan.
(A) difference in rate of interests
(B) differently what rate of interest
(C) different rates of interest
(D) the different rate of interest
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

29. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon.
(A) we should take every
(B) we have taken no
(C) us to take any
(D) we take some
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Kindly ask his advice regarding the various health insurance policies presently available.
(A) him to advise that
(B) regarding his advice
(C) that he should advise
(D) about his advice
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. The scheme has been (A) / implemented only in these (B) / part of the country and the (C) / Prime Minister will visit it shortly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. The company has (A) / decided to sell half (B) / of it shares (C) / to a Chinese firm. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

33. Rajiv has won a prize of (A) / two million dollars which (B) / has to be shared (C) / with all his team members. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. We have an account (A) / with this bank and (B) / find the staff much (C) / helpful and knowledgeable. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. By opening so many (A) / branches in such a (B) / short time, they have (C) / used the wrong strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

36. I do not understand (A) / about how the payment (B) / was made without (C) / the manager’s permission. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. We have been (A) / telling them to (B) / drive carefully but (C) / they are never listening. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

38. During the interview (A) / with the General Manager (B) / I asked her what challenges (C) / she was faced. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

39. There is all sorts (A) / of regulations that have (B) / to be met before (C) / we get a licence. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

40. Today we are closer (A) / to reaching an agreement (B) / than we were (C) / a few months ago. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

For as long as I can remember I have thought of myself as a teacher and I still do even today. But in 1965 I decided to …(41)… my hand at business. So I …(42)… my father to allow me to …(43)… up a printing and packaging plant. I …(44)… the project proposal and applied for a …(45)… Once it was approved I went …(46)… the challenges of employing the right …(47)… My project was successful and I …(48)… an attractive profit. Becoming a rich businessman …(49)… never my dream. It was just a …(50)… of proving to myself and my family that I could be a success in buisness. This experience also gave me a lot of selfconfidence.

41. (A) attempt
(B) try
(C) give
(D) show
(E) use
Ans : (B)

42. (A) permitted
(B) appealed
(C) offered
(D) persuaded
(E) prevailed
Ans : (D)

43. (A) built
(B) raise
(C) stand
(D) begin
(E) set
Ans : (E)

44. (A) extended
(B) prepared
(C) thought
(D) formulate
(E) draft
Ans : (B)

45. (A) loan
(B) post
(C) leave
(D) job
(E) relief
Ans : (A)

46. (A) through
(B) ahead
(C) for
(D) away
(E) under
Ans : (A)

47. (A) equipment
(B) knowledge
(C) behaviour
(D) role
(E) people
Ans : (E)

48. (A) gain
(B) benefited
(C) obtain
(D) reap
(E) made
Ans : (E)

49. (A) fulfilled
(B) pursued
(C) was
(D) had
(E) stayed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) state
(B) certificate
(C) way
(D) proof
(E) direction
Ans : (B)

Indian Bank Probationary Officer Exam, 2010 : English Language Solved Paper

2010-03-18T08:17:00.000-07:00

Indian Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010

(Held on 17-1-2010)
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

1. We have accepted over two billion dollars from them yet it is been used to build hospital in the area—
(A) that is yet to use
(B) although it has been used
(C) not yet being used
(D) which will be used
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

2. People have respond in favour the government’s efforts to resolve the budget crisis—
(A) favourably responded
(B) response in favour of
(C) responded favourably to
(D) been responding favourably
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

3. Striking this deal will enable the company to expand its operations in Europe—
(A) strike this deal that
(B) to strike off this deal
(C) by striking this deal to
(D) this deal was struck which
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

4. We admire they are taking this step despite the numerous risks involved—
(A) them to take
(B) them for taking
(C) that they have taken over
(D) how their taking of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

5. The management has been left with no option else to change the branch timings to avoid losing business.
(A) but to change
(B) except the change of
(C) unless it changes with
(D) other than the changing
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–20) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions—

The great fear in Asia a short while ago was that the region would suffer through the wealth destruction already taking place in the U.S. as a result of the financial crisis. Stock markets tumbled as exports plunged and economic growth deteriorated. Lofty property prices in China and elsewhere looked set to bust as credit tightened and buyers evaporated. But with surprising speed, fear in Asia swung back to greed as the region shows signs of recovery and property and stock prices are soaring in many parts of Asia.

Why should the sharp Asian turnaround be greeted with scepticism ? Higher asset prices mean households feel wealthier and better able to spend, which could further fuel the region’s nascent rebound. But just as easily, Asia could soon find itself saddled with overheated markets similar to the U.S. housing market. In short the world has not changed, it has just moved places.

The incipient bubble is being created by government policy. In response to the global credit crunch of 2008, policy makers in Asia slashed interest rates and flooded financial sectors with cash in frantic attempts to keep loans flowing and economies growing. These steps were logical for central bankers striving to reverse a deepening economic crisis. But there’s evidence that there is too much easy money around. It’s winding up in stocks and real estate, pushing prices up too far and too fast for the underlying economic fundamentals. Much of the concern is focused on China, where government stimulus efforts have been large and effective. Money in China has been especially easy to find. Aggregate new bank lending surged 201% in the first half of 2009 from the same period a year earlier, to nearly $ 1.1 trillion. Exuberance over a quick recovery–which was given a boost by China’s surprisingly strong 7.9% GDP growth in the second quarter–has buoyed investor sentiment not just for stocks but also for real estate.

Former U.S. Federal Reserve Chairman Alan Greenspan argued that bubbles could only be recognised in hindsight. But investors–who have been well schooled in the dangers of bubbles over the past decade are increasingly wary that prices have risen too far, and that the slightest bit of negative economic news could knock markets for a loop. These fears are compounded by the possibility that Asia’s central bankers will begin taking steps to shut off the money. rumours that Beijing was on the verge of tightening credit led to Shanghai stocks plunging 5%. Yet many economists believe that, “there is close to a zero possibility that the Chinese government will do anything this year that constitutes tightening.” And without a major shift in thinking, the easy-money conditions will stay in place. In a global economy that has produced more dramatic ups and downs than anyone thought possible over the past two years, Asia may be heading for another disheartening plunge.

6. To which of the following has the author attributed the 2008 Asian financial crisis ?
(1) Reluctance of Asian governments to taper off the economic stimulus
(2) Greed of Asian investors causing them to trade stocks of American companies at high prices
(3) Inflated real estate prices in Asian countries
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2)
Ans : (D)

7. What does the author want to convey through the phrase “The world has not changed it has just moved places” ?
(A) At present countries are more dependent on Asian economics than on the US economy
(B) Economies has become interlinked on account of globalisation
(C) Asian governments are implementing the same economic reforms as developed countries
(D) All economies are susceptible to recession because of the state of the US economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following can be said about the Chinese government’s efforts to revive the economy ?
(A) These were largely unsuccessful as only the housing market improved
(B) The government’s only concern was to boost investor confidence in stocks
(C) These efforts were ineffectual as the economy recovered owing to the US market stabilising
(D) These were appropriate and accomplished the goal of economic revival
(E) They blindly imitated the economic reforms adopted by the US
Ans : (B)

9. Why do experts predict that Asian policy makers will not withdraw fiscal stimulus ?
(1) The US economy is not likely to recover for a long time
(2) Stock markets are yet to regain their former levels
(3) Fear of revolt by greedy citizens
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

10. What do the statistics about loans given by Chinese banks in 2009 indicate ?
(A) There was hardly any demand for loans in 2008
(B) The Chinese government has borrowed funds from the U.S.
(C) China will take longer than the US to recover from the economic crisis
(D) The GDP of China was below expectations
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. Why has investor confidence in the Chinese stock market been restored ?
(1) Existing property prices which are stable and affordable
(2) The government has decided to tighten credit
(3) Healthy growth of the economy indicated by GDP figures
(A) Only (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. What is the author’s main objective in writing the passage ?
(A) Illustrating that Asian economies are financially more sound than those of developed countries
(B) Disputing financial theories about how recessions can be predicted and avoided
(C) Warning Asian countries about the dangers of favouring fast growth and profits over sound economic principles
(D) Extolling China’s incredible growth and urging other countries to emulate it
(E) Advising governments about the changes in policy to strengthen economic fundamentals
Ans : (C)

13. Why does the author doubt the current resurgence of Asian economics ?
(A) Their economies are too heavily reliant on the American economy which is yet to recover
(B) Central banks have slashed interest rates too abruptly which is likely to cause stock markets to crash
(C) With their prevailing economic conditions they are at risk for a financial crisis
(D) Their GDP has not grown significantly during the last financial year
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
(1) All Asian economies are recovering at the same pace
(2) Experts are apprehensive about the state of Asian economies despite their recovery
(3) Developed countries should implement the same economies reforms as Asian ones
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2) and (3)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. According to the passage, which of the following factor(s) has/ have had a negative impact on the Asian stock markets ?
(1) Abrupt drop in exports by Asian countries
(2) Extravagant disbursement of housing loans in 2009
(3) Raising of interest rates by the Central Bank
(A) None
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–18) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

16. Fuel
(A) Petrol
(B) Stimulate
(C) Sustain
(D) Heat
(E) Charge
Ans : (B)

17. Flooded
(A) Surged
(B) Saturated
(C) Overflowed
(D) Deluge
(E) Overcome
Ans : (C)

18. Evaporated
(A) Dehydrated
(B) Melted
(C) Vaporised
(D) Vanished
(E) Dodged
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 19-20) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Buoyed
(A) Heavy
(B) Stifled
(C) Numbed
(D) Dull
(E) Abated
Ans : (E)

20. Sharp
(A) Blunt
(B) Incomplete
(C) Naive
(D) Indistinct
(E) Gradual
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the letter of that part with error as your answer. If there is ‘No error’, mark (E).

21. Arranging such a large amount (A) /of funds now will be a problem why (B) / banks are usually not open (C) /so early in the morning. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

22. He had telephoned yesterday to (A) /ask how much of the youth (B) /who attend our classes would be (C) /interested in working for a textile company. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. Though he has promoted to (A) / the bank’s board as a director (B) / he continues to carry out (C) / all his current responsibilities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

24. The Board’s decision has provided (A) / employees with the opportunity (B) / to acquire upto 100 (C) / shares by the company. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

25. If the manufacturing sector continues (A) / to grow at the same rate for (B) / the next few months, I think it (C) / has a high growth rate this year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

26. The government is working (A) / out a new system to compensate (B) / those companies to sell (C) / products below the market price. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

27. The success of the (A) / government sponsor job guarantee programme (B) / has resulted in a (C) / drastic drop in poverty. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

28. We were forced into react (A) / as no organisation can (B) / afford to adhere to (C) / these outdated regulations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

29. We had extensively discussions (A) / with the participants and (B) / obtained their feedback (C) / regarding our new services. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

30. Their failure to inspect (A) / our factories is a (B) / clear indications that our (C) / license will not be renewed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

31. Though these programmes have proved (A) to be extremely (B) effective (C) they do have certain drawbacks. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

32. According to these estimates (A) our profitable (B) margin (C) will be higher if we adopt (D) this approach. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

33. In order to confront (A) the threat (B) of global warming it is imperative (C) that we work altogether. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

34. Any failure (A) to complicit (B) with these fundamental (C) regulations will result in a fine. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

35. Every organization needs to be proactive (A) in devising (B) stratergies (C) to ensure the retention (D) in staff. All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who mainly use cheques.
2. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.
3. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs of all consumers including the elderly are met.
4. This is because more and more consumers are transferring money electronically by direct debit or credit cards.
5. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their homes making them vulnerable to theft.
6. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favour of these more modern payment methods.

36. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 1
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The World Diabetes Congress has determined that India has the largest number of diabetics in the world. Apart from the loss of productivity, the …(41)… burden is alarming – $ 2.8 billion annually. Sedentary jobs, …(42)… of electronic entertainment, changing diet patterns and …(43)… dependence on automobiles have driven the activity …(44)… of Indians’ lives especially in cities.

The …(45)… is, therefore, to make people physically …(46)… and requires interventions which imapct a large …(47)… of the population. Admittedly physical activity is a …(48)… of choice and is strongly driven by …(49)… preferences. But policymaking needs to shift to …(50)… moderate levels of physical activity in the daily lives of people. One way to accomplish this is to create walkable communities that give residents a variety of destinations within walking distance.

41. (A) economic
(B) finance
(C) subsidy
(D) physical
(E) health
Ans : (B)

42. (A) broadcast
(B) spread
(C) prevalent
(D) expand
(E) widespread
Ans : (E)

43. (A) totally
(B) entirely
(C) grown
(D) mutual
(E) increasing
Ans : (E)

44. (A) most
(B) out
(C) from
(D) through
(E) outside
Ans : (B)

45. (A) ultimatum
(B) hazard
(C) sensitivity
(D) challenge
(E) dispute
Ans : (A)

46. (A) equip
(B) built
(C) active
(D) trained
(E) qualified
Ans : (C)

47. (A) section
(B) scale
(C) degree
(D) per cent
(E) piece
Ans : (A)

48. (A) want
(B) matter
(C) scarcity
(D) right
(E) lack
Ans : (B)

49. (A) showing
(B) given
(C) special
(D) personal
(E) individually
Ans : (D)

50. (A) pursuit
(B) indulge
(C) introduce
(D) insist
(E) attract
Ans : (C)

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam, 2009 : Reasoning

2010-03-12T19:22:00.001-08:00

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2009

(Held on 13-12-2009)

Reasoning : Solved Paper

1. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2*©’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘β64@%’. How is ‘DELAY’ written in that code ?
(A) β4*2%
(B) β4@2%
(C) %42@β
(D) %4@2β
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

3. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D ?
(A) Cousin
(B) Nephew
(C) Aunt
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 4–6) The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below—
394 632 783 576 895

4. If the positions of the first and the second digit within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 632
(B) 783
(C) 576
(D) 895
(E) 394
Ans : (E)

5. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which of the following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3 ?
(A) 895
(B) 394
(C) 576
(D) 632
(E) 783
Ans : (A)

6. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576
(B) 895
(C) 783
(D) 394
(E) 632
Ans : (A)

7. If ‘A’ is coded as 1, ‘B’ as 3, ‘C’ as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’ ?
(A) 81
(B) 79
(C) 77
(D) 80
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN : HEAT ?
(A) Water : Drink
(B) Light : Night
(C) Teach : Student
(D) Air : Breathe
(E) Food : Hunger
Ans : (B)

9. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V.T types faster than R S types faster than V. Who amongst the five of them types the fastest ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) S
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. If ‘B ×C’ means ‘B, is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P ×Q’ mean ?
(A) M is the brother-in-law of Q
(B) M is the uncle of Q
(C) M is the son-in-law of Q
(D) M is the mother-in-law of Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–17) Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.

11. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. What is the profession of C ?
(A) Terminal operator
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Economist
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. For which Bank does B work ?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) L
(D) Either M or S
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S ?
(A) Clerk
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Terminal Operator
(D) Forex Officer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. For which Bank does D work ?
(A) Q
(B) L
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct ?
(A) A-Forex Officer-M
(B) D-Clerk-L
(C) F-Agriculture Officer-Q
(D) B-Agriculture Officer-S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 18–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements :
Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are boulders.
Some boulders are mountains.
All hills are mountains.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are mountains.
II. Some hills are boulders.
III. Some boulders are stones.
IV. All mountains are hills.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Statements :
All arrows are bows.
All bows are swords.
Some swords are daggers.
All daggers are knives.
Conclusions :
I. All knives are bows.
II. Some swords are knives.
III. All bows are arrows.
IV. All arrows are swords.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. Statements :
Some pianos are violins.
Some violins are drums.
All drums are guitars.
No guitar is a flute.
Conclusions :
I. Some guitar are pianos.
II. Some drums are flutes.
III. Some pianos are drums.
IV. No flute is a drum.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only either II or IV follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Statements :
Some airplane are helicopters.
All helicopters are gliders.
All gliders are kites.
All kites are balloons.
Conclusions :
I. Some helicopters are balloons.
II. All kites are airplanes.
III. All balloons are gliders.
IV. All helicopters are kites.
(A) Only IV follows
(B) Only either II or III follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Statements :
All kings are warriors.
All soldiers are warriors.
All sentries are warriors.
Some sentries are soldiers.
Conclusions :
I. Some sentries are kings.
II. All warriors are soldiers.
III. Some warriors are sentries.
IV. Some soldiers are kings.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

23. Statements :
All plastics are glasses.
Some glasses are wood.
Some woods are metals.
All metals are cloths.
Conclusions :
I. Some cloths are wood.
II. Some woods are both cloths and glasses.
III. Some glasses are plastics.
IV. Some cloths are metals.
(A) None follows
(B) All follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 24–25) Read the information given below carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In a certain code language :
I. ‘she likes apples’ is written as ‘pic sip dip’.
II. ‘parrot likes apples lots’ is written as ‘dip pic tif nit’.
III. ‘she likes parrots’ is written as ‘tif sip dip’.

24. How is ‘parrot’ written in that code language ?
(A) pic
(B) dip
(C) tif
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following statements is not necessary in order to answer the above question ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) All are required
(E) Either II or III
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W

26. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (A)

28. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6
Ans : (A)

30. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statement I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statement I and II are effects of some common cause.

31. I. The government has amended tax laws to boost exports.
II. The export sector has been passing through difficult times due to heavy tax burdens.
Ans : (B)

32. I. Budgetary allocation for building a better railway network e.g. constructing new railway lines has increased.
II. There has been a substantial drop in the number of passenger opting for air travel.
Ans : (D)

33. I. The production of pulses has dropped for the third consecutive year.
II. India has decided to import pulses this year.
Ans : (A)

34. I. The Bank has provided a link on its website to obtain feed-back from customers.
II. Customers have been complaining about poor services in the Bank’s branches.
Ans : (B)

35. I. Indian citizens are willing to incur the cost of using environment friendly technology.
II. Many countries are taking steps to cut their carbon emissions.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below is given a passange followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of
the passage and decide upon the degree of its truth or falsity. Mark answer—
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statements of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) if the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is likely to be true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts the given facts.
The pace of recruitment has unmistakably picked up in the last few months. After two abysmal quarters the business sentiment has turned positive. A flurry of hiring activity has been observed across the manufacturing sector and the IT and ITES sector catering to telecom and legal process outsourcing. The advent of new players and an aggressive expansion of telecom giants has seen a bullish outlook for the industry with a promise of exponential growth. But is the worst over for businesses across the spectrum ? Firms are going back to the drawing board and dusting off their plans to see if there is scope for atleast incremental hiring in specific domains where they want to build expertise. Besides that there are few signs to show that there is a broad based revival in the market.

36. Companies in various sectors have projected higher business growth in the near future.
Ans : (B)

37. The telecom sector has experienced negative growth in the past few years.
Ans : (D)

38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of employees.
Ans : (C)

39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Ans : (C)

40. Most companies across sectors have decided to increase their manpower requirement manifold.
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as
your answer.
Letter :
T A G R S D N E V U X P
Digit/Symbol Code :
@ 4 9 # % 3 ©5 1 β7 6
Conditions—
(i) if the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel only the first letter may be coded and no code
may be given to the last letter.
(ii) if both the first and last letters are vowels then both are to be coded as $.
(iii) if the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then the codes are to be interchanged.

41. DESGRT
(A) 35%9#
(B) 35%9#@
(C) @5%9#3
(D) 359%#@
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. NERSPU
(A) @5#%6@
(B) @5#56©
(C) ©5#%6
(D) ©5#%6β
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

43. XNTPGA
(A) 7©@694
(B) 7©@964
(C) 4©@69
(D) 7©@69
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. ESVNTU
(A) $%1©@$
(B) 5%1©@β
(C) $%1©@β
(D) $%1©β 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. UXPTGN
(A) ©76@9β
(B) $76@9©
(C) β 76@9©
(D) β 76@9B
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Given answer—
(A) if only Course of action I follows.
(B) if only Course of action II follows.
(C) if either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
(D) if neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.

46. Statement : An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are unemployable.
Courses of action :
I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.
Ans : (A)

47. Statement : Heavy rains hit the state during October, just before the State Assembly elections and caused heavy damage to standing crops in most parts of the state.
Courses of action :
I. Elections should be postponed to give candidates the opportunity to campaign.
II. The Government should announce a relief package for those who are affected.
Ans : (B)

48. Statement : Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are not as attractive as promoted by telecome companies and complained to regulatory authority about the same.
Courses of action :
I. The regulatory authority should direct telecome companies to be transparent on the tariff structure of all plans.
II. The government should restrict the number of telecome companies operating in the country.
Ans : (A)

49. Statement : A number of school children in the local schools have fallen ill after the consumption of their subsidised tiffin provided by the school authority.
Courses of action :
I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school.
Ans : (B)

50. Statement : The dolphin population in India has been decreasing sharply over the past few years.
Courses of action :
I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species and be bred in aquariums or protected areas.
II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
A Research Institute is recruiting a libration to digitise its information resources among other duties. Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must :
I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01- 11-2009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year’s experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1-11-2009.
Mark answer :
(A) if he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) if he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

51. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
Ans : (B)

52. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.
Ans : (D)

53. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
Ans : (B)

54. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1-10- 1974. Since July 2005, he has been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Ans : (A)

55. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the required date.
Ans : (A)

56. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she has been a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age of 29. She obtained 72 per cent graduation.
Ans : (E)

57. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17-10-1973.
Ans : (B)

58. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she was 26.
Ans : (E)

59. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the specified date.
Ans : (A)

60. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research instiute. He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22-10-1974.
Ans : (D)

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam, 2009 : General Awareness on Socio-Economic Developments

2010-03-11T18:57:00.000-08:00

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2009
(Held on 22-11-2009)
General Awareness on Socio-Economic Developments : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget 2009-10 ? The Finance Minister promised
1. To bring fiscal deficit under control, institutional reforms will be initiated during the year.
2. Banks and insurance companies will remain in public sector and government will provide full support to these institutions to remain competitive by capital infusion, wherever necessary.
3. Banks will be allowed to set up offsite ATMs without prior approval from the RBI.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

2. As per the reports published in various newspapers/magazines and journals, the year 2008 was an important milestone in the evaluation of human settlements. For the first time in the human history, the population living in urban areas exceeded that in rural areas. What is India’s position in this regard ?
1. India is a relatively less urbanized country with only 30% of its total population living in cities.
2. The size of its urban population is the second largest in the world.
3. India has more than 100 biggest cities in the world.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

3. According to Dr. Mohammad Yunus, the Nobel prize winner Economist, a particular type of financing undertaken by the banks, has created a miraculous situation where every year about 5 per cent clients of the Grameen Banks come out of their poverty and join the main stream of the socio economic development in poor/developing countries. This financing activity of the banks in known as—
(A) Trade Finance
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Export finance
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. As per the reports published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), the developing economies across the world are holding a massive stockpile of foreign exchange reserves. Which of the following is/are the resultant consequences of this type of stockpilings by various nations ?
1. A trade imbalance (vast difference in value of imports/exports) is generated between the developing and emerging economies and the rich countries. It is not a healthy sign.
2. Many economists are of the opinion that these imbalances created the underpinning of the current global economic crisis.
3. This stockpiling is responsible not only for problems in trade balances but has also created a problem of money laundering.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is/are true about the Railway Budget 2009-10 ?
1. Railway tickets to be made available through post offices and mobile vans.
2. Long distance trains will have on-board doctor and infotainment services.
3. Tatkal scheme of booking is modified. Instead of booking tickets under the scheme five days in advance, it can now be done only two days in advance.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. The Govt. of India has set up a special group to devise a long term pricing formula, so that it can cope up with the prevailing global volatility in the prices of which of the following commodities ?
(A) Sugar
(B) Paddy
(C) Crude oil and Petroleum
(D) Gold
(E) Pulses
Ans : (C)

7. Which of the following is not included in the core sectors of Indian economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Coal
(C) Steel
(D) Cement
(E) Electricity
Ans : (A)

8. As we all know India has a threetier structure of tax administration. There are taxes levied by Central Govt., State Govts. and Local Govts. Which of the following taxes is levied by the Local Government Bodies ?
(A) Value Added Tax
(B) Stamp Duty
(C) Service Tax
(D) Land Revenue
(E) Tax on water supply and drainage etc.
Ans : (E)

9. What was the amount sanctioned by the Govt. of India during 2008-09 for providing drinking water to rural parts of India ?
(A) Rs. 30,000 crore
(B) Rs. 40,000 crore
(C) Rs. 53,000 crore
(D) Rs. 60,000 crore
(E) Rs. 73,000 crore
Ans : (E)

10. The Reserve Bank of India has reconstituted the Technical Advisory Committee (TAC) on monetary policy with effect from 1st July 2009. Who is the Chairperson of the same ?
(A) D. Subbarao
(B) K. C. Chakrabarty
(C) Shyamala Gopinath
(D) Usha Thorat
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. Which of the following statements about the ‘State of Indian Economy, during 2008-09 is/are true ?
1. The growth of real GDP during 2008-09 was recorded at 6•7%, compared to 9% during 2007-08.
2. The fiscal deficit was the greatest cause of concern as it exceeded the budget estimates and stood at 13%.
3. Forex reserves were at a very comfortable position as India got a lot of FDIs and FIIs during the year. However, 60% of the reserves were deployed to manage oil and petroleum imports and subsidies on all such products.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

12. Many times we see a term ‘PPP in financial newspapers. One full form of it is ‘Private Public Partnership’. What is another version of the same also used in the financial world ?
(A) Perfect, Preferred and Protected
(B) Point to Point Protocol
(C) Power Point Presentation
(D) Purchasing Power Parity
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. As per the announcement made recently, the Govt. of India is going to launch a National Mission for which of the following in near future ?
(A) National Mission for Female Literacy
(B) National Mission for Abolishing Child Labour
(C) National Mission for Computer Literacy
(D) National Mission for protecting the Rights of Physically Challenged
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following is one of the most successful programmes under Bharat Nirman ?
(A) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(B) Watershed Development Scheme
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(D) Indira Awas Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. As we all know ‘Mobile Banking’ is comparatively a new mode of banking all over the world, what is its status in India ?
1. The willingness to conduct banking through mobile devices is higher in India.
2. About 4% of total m -commerce transactions have taken place in the first few months of the current fiscal year in India.
3. Since RBI’s permission is needed for offering mobile banking, only two private banks are providing this service at present.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is/are true about the Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) to be launched soon ?
1. The scheme will be launched in one village of each district in U.P., Bihar and Rajasthan as a pilot project.
2. The scheme is only for villages where the 50 per cent population is of Scheduled Castes.
3. An amount of Rs. 1,00,000 crore is provided for the scheme out of which 50% will come as grant-in-aid from the UNO.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per the recent announcement made by the Govt. of India, a special One Time Grant of Rs. 100 crore is given to which of the following organizations ?
(A) Administrative Staff College of India (Hyderabad)
(B) Tata Institute of Social Sciences (Mumbai)
(C) International Institute for Population Sciences (Mumbai)
(D) Indian Institute of Technology (Delhi)
(E) Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (Dehradun)
Ans : (E)

18. Many times we hear about the ‘Banking Ombudsman’. What is/are the major roles of same ?
1. Banking Ombudsman is a quasi judicial authority having powers to summon, the banks and the customers both in case of dispute.
2. The Banking Ombudsman are appointed by the President of India and are retired judges of the High or Supreme Courts.
3. The decisions/judgements given by the Banking Ombudsman cannot be taken to any court of justice as their decisions are last in case of bank related problems/disputes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. Who amongst the following is the Union Home Minister at present ?
(A) Kapil Sibbal
(B) Sharad Pawar
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Murli Deora
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following is NOT prescribed/recommended by the Economic Survey 2008-09 presented to the Lok Sabha recently ?
(A) Allow 49% FDI in defence and insurance sectors
(B) Decontrol diesel and petroleum prices
(C) Increase exemption limit on personal income tax upto Rs. 5,00,000
(D) List all unlisted PSUs and sell a minimum 10% equity to public
(E) Decontrol sugar and fertilizer
Ans : (C)

21. The Reliance Power (R-Power) is working on four Hydropower projects in Arunachal Pradesh which are ‘Run-of-River’ (R-O-R) type of projects. What is the main characteristic of ROR projects ?
(A) These projects are developed only in hilly areas. They can’t be developed on plains
(B) In these projects there is no need of storing the water in dams which is very costly
(C) In ROR projects the only requirement is to make a big reservoir and turn the flow of river in the direction in which we need it
(D) ROR projects are three to four times costlier as compared to old patterned dam type of projects
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. Which of the following countries is planning to launch its first Mars probe in near future ?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Russia
(E) USA
Ans : (A)

23. India recently inducted Airborne Warning And Control System (AWACS) platforms in its Airforce. These sophisticated machines are supplied by which of the following countries ?
(A) Australia
(B) Germany
(C) Israel
(D) France
(E) Russia
Ans : (E)

24. Dr. Manmohan Singh is the member of the Parliament from which of the following constituencies ?
(A) New Delhi (South)
(B) Amritsar
(C) Lucknow
(D) Medak
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following pairs of countries are the signatories of a Gas pipeline Deal christened as Peace Pipeline ?
(A) Iran – Iraq
(B) Iraq – UAE
(C) Kuwait – Iran
(D) Pakistan – Iran
(E) Pakistan – India
Ans : (D)

26. Which of the following countries is at the top of the ‘World Green Index’ compiled by the America’s ‘National Geographic Society’ and also through an international polling from ‘Global Scan’ ?
(A) South Africa
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. As we all know G-20 has set up a working group to find out the reasons of the recent economic crisis and global slowdown.
What according to the reports of the working group was/were the main reasons of the crisis and slowdown ?
1. Allowing cheap iquidity and sub-prime lending
2. Poor credit appraisals and securitisation
3. Excessive dependence on credit ratings
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the oil rich gulf countries elected its first women parliamentarians when four women were declared elected in its recently held elections ?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Kuwait
(D) Iraq
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. ‘Mardeka Cup’ is associated with game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Golf
(C) Football
(D) Badminton
(E) Lawn Tennis
Ans : (C)

30. Which of the following state govts. decided to have a ‘Mahila Court’ in every district of the state ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Delhi
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (B)

31. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Faith and Compassion’ ?
(A) Arun Gandhi
(B) Kuldeep Nayyar
(C) Amit Chaudhury
(D) Navin Chawla
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

32. Which of the following countries has developed ‘sajjil-2’ missiles, which were test fired recently ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Iran
(C) North Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. The first Republic Day of the Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal was celebrated on which of the following days ?
(A) 16th August 2009
(B) 29th June 2009
(C) 16th July 2009
(D) 29th May 2009
(E) 20th May 2009
Ans : (E)

34. Pankaj Advani has become the world’s professional champion player of—
(A) Badminton
(B) Tennis
(C) Golf
(D) Chess
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

35. We hear a term ‘Carbon Foot Print’ these days very frequently. What does it indicate ?
1. The amount of carbondioxide released in the atmosphere ever day by an electronic gadget/organization or even by an individual.
2. The quantity of CO2 released when one ton of air recycled by an Air conditioner, during every hour of its functioning.
3. The quantity of all green house gases put together required to maintain the temperature of the environment at a fixed level of 30C at nodal points in a country.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. The letter ‘D’ stands for which of the following in the abbreviated name OECD ?
Organisation of Economic Cooperation and……
(A) Defence
(B) Direction
(C) Dominance
(D) Development
(E) Devaluation
Ans : (D)

37. The ‘8th Annual Asian Security Summit’ was organized in which of the following places in May 2009 ?
(A) Seoul
(B) Yangon
(C) Singapore
(D) Kathmandu
(E) New Delhi
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following countries is the host of FIFA World Cup 2010 ?
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Brazil
(D) Germany
(E) South Africa
Ans : (E)

39. Late Y. S. Rajasekhar Reddy was from which of the following political parties ?
(A) Telugu Desham
(B) Bharatiya Janta Party
(C) DMK
(D) Samajwadi Party
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. Who amongst the following won Women’s singles Title of ‘Spanish Open Badminton-2009’ the final for which was played at Madrid in May 2009 ?
(A) Sayali Gokhale
(B) Lianne Tan
(C) Nathalie Descamps
(D) Jill Pittard
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

41. Which of the following is the Bank Rate at present ?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 7%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

42. P. Mangesh Chandran whose name was in news recently is a famous —
(A) Chess player
(B) Playback singer
(C) Cine actor
(D) Author
(E) Journalist
Ans : (A)

43. Which of the following teams won the Champions League Football 2009, the final of which was played in Rome in May 2009 ?
(A) Manchester United
(B) Barcelona
(C) Everton
(D) Chelsea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following states is holding a unique summit on Tigers at global level ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Rajasthan
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (D)

45. Which of the following books is NOT written by Daris Lessing ?
(A) The Golden Note book
(B) Memoirs of a survivor
(C) The city of joy
(D) The summer before the Dark
(E) The fifth child
Ans : (C)

46. Which of the following is Statutory Liquidity Ratio at present in India ?
(A) 16%
(B) 11%
(C) 6%
(D) 33%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

47. Mr. Deep Joshi’s name was in news as he has been awarded—
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) Raman Magsaysay Award
(C) Man Booker Prize
(D) Jamunalal Bajaj Award
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Bihar Sugarcane Amendment Bill (Regulation of Supply and purchase) 2007 will enable State Govt. to—
(A) Purchase sugarcane from the farmers and supply it to sugar factories directly at a predetermined price. This will save farmers from exploitation by the factories who do not pay them adequately and in time.
(B) Produce ethanol directly from sugarcane
(C) Force farmers to sell their entire production of sugarcane to sugar mills in cooperative sector only and not to private mills who are paying exorbitantly high price to the farmers. Cooperative mills are not getting enough supply to keep them alive
(D) Compel farmers to produce sugarcane in at last 30% of their land as Bihar is losing its major share in sugarcane production due to unwillingness of farmers to grow sugarcane. They wish to switch over to other high cost crops which give them good returns
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

49. Ms. Nirupama Rao has taken over as the new—
(A) Home Secretary of India
(B) Foreign Secretary of India
(C) Cabinet Secretary of India
(D) Attorney General of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. Who amongst the following is adjudged as the CEO of the year 2009 by the ‘Global Supply Chain Leaders’ ?
(A) Mr. Lalit Modi
(B) Mr. Yash Birla
(C) Mr. Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Ms. Indra Nooyi
(E) Mr. Ratan Tata
Ans : (D)

Raj. Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 29-11-2009 Solved Paper

2010-03-09T09:47:00.000-08:00

Rajasthan Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2009

(Held on 29-11-2009)

English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

India, it is …(1)… said, is not a …(2)… but a continent. From North to South and East to …(3)…, the people are different, the languages are …(4)…, the customs are different. There are few countries on earth with the enormous variety that India has to offer. India is far from the …(5)… country in the world to travel …(6)…. It can be hard going. Yet it is …(7)… worth visiting.

Basically India …(8)… what you make of it and what you want it to be. If you want to see temples, there are temples with enough styles and types. If it is history you want, India has …(9)… of it; the forts, abandoned cities, ruins, battle fields and monuments all have their …(10)… to tell.

1. (A) not

(B) often

(D) twice

(E) read

Ans : (B)

2. (A) country

(B) village

(D) town

(E) place

Ans : (A)

3. (A) North

(B) East

(D) rest

(E) no where

Ans : (C)

4. (A) same

(B) some

(D) different

(E) few

Ans : (D)

5. (A) difficult

(B) good

(D) rich

(E) easiest

Ans : (E)

6. (A) around

(B) inside

(D) cities

(E) upon

Ans : (A)

7. (A) no

(B) never

(D) all

(E) thrice

Ans : (D)

8. (A) was

(B) in

(D) are

(E) gives

Ans : (C)

9. (A) books

(B) plenty

(D) little

(E) some

Ans : (B)

10. (A) poverty

(B) plenty

(D) cities

(E) tales

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 11–25) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them when answering some of the questions—

He was a funny looking man with a high, bald, dome shaped head, a face very small in comparison and a long wavy beard. His unusual features were a standing joke among his friends. He was a poor man—an idler. He didn’t work at his trade—a stonecutter, more than what was necessary to keep his wife and three boys alive. He preferred to talk but since his wife was an irate complaining woman, he loved to be away from home.

The whole city he lived in was seething with argumentation. The city was Athens and the man was Socrates–the Greek philosopher. He had funny ways and notions. And to the astonishment of all, the Oracle at Delphi, the priestess when asked, “Who is the wisest man in Athens ?” mentioned Socrates, Socrates was the evangelist of clear thinking : he would present people with questions pretending he didn’t know the answers and get them to make astounding admissions. Socrates would go upto a prominent statesman coming to the end of a speech on ‘courage’, about the glory of dying for one’s country and say, “Forgive my intrusion, but just what do you mean by courage ?”

“Courage is sticking to your post in danger” would be the reply. “But supposing good strategy demands that you retire ?”, Socrates would ask. “You wouldn’t stay in that case” the man would be forced to admit. Socrates would persist, “Then is courage sticking to your post or retiring ?”. ‘I’m afraid I don’t know.” ‘I don’t either”, Socrates would say “but perhaps it is not different from just doing the reasonable thing regardless of the danger.”

11. Socrates by profession was—

(A) Philosopher

(B) Idler

(D) Evangelist

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

12. The author’s main objective in writing the passage is to—

1. describe the situation prevalent in Athens in Socrates’ time.

2. describe Socrates’ physical characteristics.

3. criticize Socrates’ way of life.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 3

(D) Both 1 and 3

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

13. How did Socrates perceive courage ?

(A) Not abandoning one’s post

(B) Retiring from one’s post

(D) Rightful action in the face of danger

(E) Not changing one’s opinion

Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following best describes Socrates ?

(A) He loved to argue with his wife

(B) He was a handsome man

(D) He had no sense of humour

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) The Oracle at Delphi did not know anything

(B) Socrates could not support his family

(D) Socrates believed in reason and logic

(E) All of these

Ans : (D)

16. What was Socrates’ style of arguing ?

(A) Make fun of people by pointing out the flaws in their arguments

(B) Preach till his audience was convinced about his point of view

(D) Rudely interrupt speeches and question the orator

(E) Insult the speaker so that he would get angry and lose the argument

Ans : (C)

17. An appropriate title for the passage would be—

(A) Ancient Greece

(B) He Taught Us to Think

(D) The Oracle at Delphi

(E) Arguing

Ans : (D)

18. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?

(A) Socrates valued logic

(B) Socrates had an unhappy personal life

(D) Socrates worked very hard so that his family could live in comfort

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

19. Why did the Oracle name Socrates as the wisest man in Athens ?

(A) Socrates had the answer to all questions

(B) Socrates had a sense of humour

(D) Socrates was a good orator

(E) Socrates valued friendship

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 20-22) Pick out the word which is closest in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

20. Notion

(A) Rules

(B) Clothes

(D) Advice

(E) Gestures

Ans : (C)

21. Seething

(A) Assembling

(B) Suffering

(D) Searching

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

22. Astonishment

(A) Disgust

(B) Offence

(D) Interest

(E) Wonder

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 23–25) Pick out the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

23. Irate

(A) Irritable

(B) Easygoing

(D) Calm

(E) Weak

Ans : (D)

24. Prominent

(A) Ordinary

(B) Dull

(D) Intelligent

(E) Incapable

Ans : (A)

25. Forgive

(A) Exempt

(B) Abstain

(D) Pardon

(E) Condemn

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark your answer as (E).

26. Look ! (A) /somebody (B) / had climbing up (C) / that there over there. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (C)

27. According to (A) / at a party (B) / a few months ago (C) / and he did seems fine. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (D)

28. I saw Jack (A) / at a party (B) / a few month ago (C) / and he did seems fine. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (D)

29. Betty has a (A) / term paperto write (B) / she has a lab report (C) / in finish too. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (D)

30. If a hotel is (A) / very expensive, it does not (B) / mean that its (C) / services is best. (D) No Error (E)

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following sentences there are blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five words denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which of the words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence to make the sentences meaningfully complete.

31. Looking ……… I now see all the mistakes I made when I was young.

(A) back

(B) on

(D) into

(E) above

Ans : (A)

32. The ship of the merchants…… tossed to the island by the rough sea wave.

(A) had

(B) was

(D) should

(E) will

Ans : (B)

33. They……… his house and found a number of stolen articles.

(A) broke

(B) launched

(D) smashed

(E) razed

Ans : (C)

34. You can either pay the ……… or go to prison for a month.

(A) fine

(B) home

(D) privacy

(E) levy

Ans : (A)

35. The wolves ……… all night and kept us awake.

(A) cried

(B) howled

(D) played

(E) barked

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Which of the phrase (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required mark (E) as the answer.

36. The research reported here is based at a survey.

(A) based on a

(B) base at a

(D) based into a

(E) No correction required

Ans : (A)

37. It is increasingly being realized that human resource development is necessary.

(A) been realized that

(B) being realized that

(D) realizing that

(E) No correction required

Ans : (E)

38. The north–eastern region of India presents a somehow unique situation.

(A) a somewhere unique

(B) a somewhat unique

(D) a unique somehow

(E) No correction required

Ans : (B)

39. This approach has affectedly the methodology of research.

(A) have affectedly

(B) had affect

(D) will affectedly

(E) No correction required

Ans : (C)

40. It is in this land where people by different corners live together.

(A) people different by

(B) peoples by differently

(D) people from different

(E) No correction required

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Which of the phrase (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required mark (E) as the answer.

41. He must have behaved impolite and suffer because of that.

(A) impolitely and suffer

(B) impolitely and suffered

(D) impolitely and have suffer

(E) No correction required

Ans : (B)

42. Because of his efficiency, the Director wanted him to work as assistant.

(A) wanted to him

(B) wants him to be

(D) wanted of him

(E) No correction required

Ans : (E)

43. Even less intelligent students can be succeeded through hard work and perseverance.

(A) get succession

(B) be success

(D) be getting succeeded

(E) No correction required

Ans : (C)

44. The Neo Club has been extended financial and technical help to poor and deserving women.

(A) has been extending

(B) have been extending

(D) have been extended

(E) no correction required

Ans : (A)

45. Highly intelligent people seldom tolerate any ambiguity.

(A) tolerate hardly any ambiguity

(B) hardly tolerate ambiguous

(D) hardly tolerate any lacuna

(E) No correction required

Ans : (E)

46. Being toiled for two hours, he sat down to take some rest.

(A) Have toiled for

(B) Had toiled for

(D) Having toiled for

(E) No correction required

Ans : (D)

47. Some people by naturally talk more than others.

(A) by naturally talk

(B) naturally talk

(D) naturally by talking

(E) No correction required

Ans : (B)

48. One of the basic choices we make in life is whether following the path of smart selfishness or try to avoid all problems.

(A) while following

(B) is whether to follow

(D) has been whether follow

(E) No correction required

Ans : (B)

49. Some people experienced life only if they are totally at the mercy of their feelings.

(A) experience life as if they are

(B) experienced life as if they are

(D) experience life when they were

(E) No correction required

Ans : (A)

50. Good-natured people have been suffered because of their politicking companions.

(A) Have suffereing with

(B) Are suffered because of

(D) May suffer because of

(E) No correction required

Ans : (D)